Its correct to say; yerdim : i ate ?? Correct meaning?
Nope :) "I ate" would be "yedim." The little "r" makes all the difference.
So someone stopped eating altogether?
I agree lol sounds kind of odd
Why not " I have eaten "
In Turkish there's no distinction between: I ate and I have eaten.
Both are yedim
That would be "Yedim"
I attended a course in Istanbul and they taught us "y-iyor-d-ım" for I used to eat...How would you translate this instead?
That is more like "I was eating" but there are instances where that could be "I used to eat" as well.
As I suppose, "yerdim" also means "i would eat", isn't it? how to differentiate them?
It's true that it can also be I would eat. To differantiate between the meaning just look at the context.
Eskiden elma yerdim.
"I used to eat apples"
Eğer bilseydim elma yerdim.
"If I knew it I would eat apples"
so the would meaning is always with conditionals ? but in your example, we shouldv'e said : i would ate /would have eaten ----- conditional type 3 or 2 ;di mi ?
yes, that's clear, but here is not given any context, so from what will we know if we have to translate with "used to" or "would". One of them Always is marked wrong and this without any context. Therefore it is so difficult
I think: I used to eat it should be accepted. If not, please explain. thanks.
You should add "onu" to mean "I used to eat it"(Onu yerdim).
But in another example "I used to do it" was ok for yapardım.