4 Comments
What is the difference between saying "Kokken ha oljen" and "Kokken har oljen" ?
The first one is "The cook have the oil" and the second one is "The cook has the oil". In the first of these the verb is in the infinitive tense (to have), and is grammatically incorrect.
Is this true? Because I read elsewhere that ha and har depend on certain words/sentences/word genders. It would be a hell of a lot simpler if it was simply "Have/has"!
22
Ha doesn't equal have in all cases. Å ha is the infinitive, and har is present tense for all persons. Verbs don't usually inflect based on word gender.
http://www.verbix.com/webverbix/go.php?T1=ha&Submit=Go&D1=25&H1=125
Basically:
ha - infinitive or imperative
har - present tense
hadde - past tense
And that's all you have to remember :)
[2019/05/02]
