I just can't HEAR any difference between 'nosotros' and 'nosotras'. Though I know the difference in grammar. That's such a pity I lose hearts just because I can't hear it good enough.
Don't worry bro, you'll feel the same way learning French (such as finding out the difference of sound between une and un, and bon and bonne). The more you do the lesson the better your ear will pick up on it. Of course, grammar helps too.
Finally, when I've started learning french a year ago, it appeared to be easier to hear, than in this certain sentence, when you know the rules. Because 'une' is more like [ün], and 'un' is [əNG]. But I'd agree that compared to french, spanish is easier to learn and to pronounce and to understand by hearing.
Nosotras means WE GIRLS or WOMEN eat fruit. NosotrAs imply a group of women as subject.
In english, there's no difference between feminine and masculine when someone says "we". So, in this sentence, can I say either "nosotras" and "nosotros"?
If "we" are all women, nosotras is correct. If "we" includes a man, nosotros is correct.
We were supposed to write what we heard. She said nosotras - therefore this is what we should have written (regardless of the translation)
Nosotros would be correct if men were all or part of the group. In this particular case though, we are to write' nosotras' because that is what the speaker said.
we did not know if the group was a group of women, men or mixed so I therefore put nosotros. I got it wrong apparently!! confused .com
'We eat fruit' conveys the idea that 'we' eat anything under the category of 'fruit'. In contrast, 'We eat 'fruits' indicates that we eat anything that is a fruit (one fruit, two fruit, three...) In this case, 'Nosotras comemos fruta' translates to both the English sentences because it is not clear which 'fruit' (category or item) we are referring to.
Keep in mind that the with the future tense, you tack on to the end of the infinitive: comemos is simple present, comeremos is simple future.
Nosotros is used when 'we' is a group of males. Nosotras is used when 'we' is a group of females. However, if you were a crowd of 100 females and you were the only male, the 'we' would be nosotros. If there is any mixing of gender in the crowd, no matter how small the amount of males it would be, you revert to 'nosotros.'
Why there has to be 'fruta', not 'frutas'. Is there any grammar rule about that? Or it is just a manner of speaking, like in English: "we had an apple'(in the meaning it wasn't really one apple only, but everyone had at least one).