both comments are correct--one cannot tell if it's singular (il) or plural (ils).
How would we know from the pronunciation only that this sentence is plural? 'Ils ... auraient' rather than 'Il ... aurait'?
Sitesurf, I keep getting caught out by this, is there truly no difference due to intonation where even a native French speaker would not be able to tell, that is, when the sentence has no other context ?
There absolutely no clue you could hear.
But in normal conversation, it there were any ambiguity, your counterpart would say: "qui, il ?" and you would alternatively reply: "lui" or "eux" (or something more elaborate).
How do we know they would be paying "you" for that, instead of merely "paying for that"?
The word order in French is usually subject, object, verb. Here 'Ils' (they) is the subject, 'vous' (you) is the object and 'payer' (to pay) is the verb. Thus 'They you pay' or with the usual English word order 'They pay you'.
I reported the problem under "other". But i also automatically considered that the person who would be paid is plural, so i also modified the word. "il vous aurait payés pour ça". i think this possibility should also be considered.
You forgot 2 possibilities: feminine singular and plural
il vous aurait payée / payées pour ça
Quick question: the person or group you are paying something to can be the direct object of the verb "payer"?
shouldnt is be "il vous auraiyez paye pour ca" as shouldnt the next word after "vous" end with a y???
What you wrote would sound exactly like "un oreiller" (= pillow).
The conditional present of verb avoir is: j'aurais, tu aurais, il/elle/on aurait, nous aurions, vous auriez, ils/elles auraient.
This is a different story.
In the French sentence, they would have paid you for that, not that for you.
What you suggest would back-translate to: Ils/Elles auraient payé cela/ça pour vous.