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Li ne amis sian edzinon = He (Johnny) did not love his (own) wife.
Li ne amis lian edzinon = He (Johnny) did not love his (Jack's) wife.
Mind blown... What about for sxia, as in her (own), or their (own) and so on. I should probably look this up.
Just check my link further up and get back to me if you have more questions :)
Mojosas. Mi ne vidis la [linkon? ;p] Dankon, gis!
Edit:Mi legis la pagxon kaj nun mi konprendas.
Jes! Vidu [Yes! Look]: http://vortaro.net/#eks-
En tiu ĉi ligilo vi vidos eĉ "eksmoda" (korforma al antikva modo, ne al la aktuala modo). [In this link you'll even see "eksmoda" (in line with an old fashion, not with the current fashion)]
Wondering about antauxan. Is it antaux+an a member of previous something=former?
I answered 'He had not loved before his wife.' taking it to mean that he hadn't loved anyone else before falling in love with his wife. Can someone please clarify why this is wrong?
Is "He did not love his own ex-wife" not a valid translation? I know it sound's a bit awkward, but is it a technically accurate translation?
That sentence would have been "Li ne amis sian propran antaŭan edzinon." The word "sia" is reflexive, but does not stress the ownership in the way "his own" does. Using "propran" or "His own" implies there are other wives in consideration that are not related to him. This sentence only implies that he has a previous wife and possible a current one, but it doesn't imply the existence of any other wife.
Jes, tamen se oni devas traduki la Esperantan frazon en la anglan, "former" estas pli bona vorto por "antaŭa".
"He... his" is "li... sia" "She... her" is "ŝi... sia"
Sia always relates to the previous pronoun, so when you translate it, of course you match the gender.
