I think it's like in "hunden", where you pronounce it like " hun'n". But I can be wrong because I hear a small "d" sound in this word despite they have nearly the same structure. Edit: In my opinion it's like "hun'n" but with soft "d" so it would be pronounced like that: "fien'(d)'n
I don't think that's correct. Since you would not say "Him is the enemy," you also would not ask "Whom is the enemy?" If we were to speak English with perfect grammar, we would ask "Who is the enemy?" and answer "He." In sentences with "to be" as the verb, both subject and predicate are supposed to be in the same form. In natural spoken English, as you say, we don't usually follow this rule (which is why we would answer "Him.")
The pronoun must be nominative form. The location of the pronoun does not affect its form. The question may be stated as "The enemy is who?" or "Who is the enemy?". In each case the answer requires a subjective completion in nominative form -- "He is the enemy" or "The enemy is he." The second answer may sound strange or even incorrect to many people because they normally accept "him" as an alternative form of the nominative pronoun, equating it with "he".
A similar equation is made when people are asked to identify themselves. A large percentage respond with, "It is me". But the grammatically correct answer is "It is I." The subjective completion must be in the nominative form. The fact that "It is me" or more commonly, "It's me," is well accepted evidences an increasing willingness for English speakers to accept "me" as a nominative pronoun.
Somewhere in one of these exercises is the statement, "Ingen er smartere enn meg." That sentence, to be grammatically correct, should read, "Ingen er smartere enn jeg." However, many Norwegians now accept the first sentence as being correct. The grammatically best translation for each of the two sentences is "No one is smarter than I," but, as indicated above, a great number of English speakers are accepting "me" as a nominative pronoun in such sentences.
In a sentence with a being verb, both the subject and predicate are in nominative in English. That's what I said, and also what you seem to be trying to say. "Him" can be either dative or accusative (respectively, "I gave him the cookie," or "I beat him at chess.") But the sentence we're discussing doesn't use either of these cases. Sentences with "to be" as the verb are technically correct only if both subject and predicate are in the nominative.
Note to readers. Fenfula's comments are replies made in respect to some nonsense I wrote and subsequently corrected.
Note to Fenifula. You are absolutely right! Thanks for making irrefutably valid points.
I am Norwegian. English is my second language. (A fact, not an excuse.) For a while, when I was really young, I had difficulty with "who" and "whom". Theoretically that difficulty ended long ago. I now have the head knowledge required to deal with those pronouns on an error free basis; however, for some currently inexplicable reason I had a relapse and consequently wrote gibberish. I have deleted most of it.