Translation:I heard him play the flute six months ago, but I never heard him play the violin.
"...but never have I heard him play the violin." was not acceptable. Fairly common phrasing in my language- at least in written form.
I think this is because the "have" would make it a different tense. "I heard him play" is a different tense than "I have heard him play".
Mitcorb,the sentence is , preterito perfecto simple , but your's would be, preterito perfecto compuesto.
They said "hace seis meses," so I thought the time reference fits the preterito compuesto better. I might be wrong but it sounds more natural to me (in English). How does it affect the meaning?
liraneitan- I think that for us, 6 months ago is over, but for the person who was there to hear him playing the flute, at this moment, the action wasn't finished, that's why, we can't use the preterito perfecto simple.
thanks. what about the second part? why is it "nunca lo oi" instead of "nunca lo he oido"? the nunca implies "I have never heard him (to this day)". In English "I never heard" should refer to a specified period of time that has already ended (although it can be used colloquially as "I've/I'd never".)
liraneitan- maybe they mean, that if they never heard him playing the flute, it's because it means that the time is passed. I'm gonna ask my Spanish profesor. You gave me a reason to have a doubt.
How would I say: ¨for six months¨ instead of ¨six months ago¨? I mistakenly translated this as ¨for six months¨ because of the hint of ¨since¨ for ¨hace¨
In Spain, “for six months” is usually rendered without a preposition: ‘Lo oía tocar la flauta seis meses’. In Latin America, one usually says ‘por seis meses’, or, more formally, ‘durante seis meses’. But ‘para seis meses’ is incorrect. Note that in any case, one would then say ‘oía’ (imperfect), because it was ongoing, not just a single event.
Why can't it also be translated as I heard "you" instead of him? Can't lo be used for formal "you" in the masculine form?
Agreed. It really sucked to correctly translate a sentence this complicated and then lose a heart for my trouble.
Correct: ‘Lo oí tocar’ can also mean “I heard you [formal masculine singular] play”.
I also put - I heard you, as you say it can mean both, but was marked wrong
‘Lo oí tocar la flauta hace seis meses’ can mean either “I heard him play the flute six months ago” or “I heard him playing the flute six months ago”.
I wrote this too. I believe it is a paticiple though and I think we are actually wrong. Also, my friend who speaks Spanish natively said that she thinks playing would be wrong so I guess we're wrong or at least if we go to Peru.
As a native English speaker, I would say that whether it's play or playing, the meaning stays the same and the grammar stays intact. Only in Spanish is it necessary to use the infinitive tocar.
Agreed that they are virtually equivalent, although if it was just once you might tend to say "play", while if it was several times you might tend to say "playing".
I disagree with that distinction. I would use playing even if it was only once.
the second 'I' is redundant as there can be no other subject, reasonably, for the second verb and it would be omitted in English routinely. To mark a sentence translation that does not contain it is wrong. 'I heard him play the flute six months ago but, never, the violin' is succinct and encompasses the meaning fully.
For Peanuts, don't give up. Hard is a mighty powerful word, but then learning to walk was hard to. Keep at it and you will slowly start to see results.
"lo" is a masculine form of a pronoun reflecting that the subject heard "him" play. "lo oi".
Actually, ‘lo’ is the default direct-object pronoun. It's used not only when the direct object is known to be masculine, but also, like “it” in English, when the direct object's gender is unknown.
I feel my translation "Six months earlier I heard him play the flute but never have I heard him play the violin" is perfectly legitimate
The construction ‘hace seis meses’ = “six months ago” means “six months before now”; but “six months earlier” = ‘seis meses antes’ means “six months before the time that was just being referred to”.
Why not use past perfect instead of simple past? "Lo he oído tocar" instead of "Lo oí tocar". It's not like he played the flute once and then never played it again (unless that is specifically what you mean, which I think is unlikely)
Because in Spanish, they use preterito perfecto simple, when the action has happened in the past, and the action is finished as : ayer, mire una película. ayer is finished, past tense. Este año, he estudiado mucho, todos los días, this year isnt finished yet, past perfect. Or : cuando mi amigo llego a mi casa, estaba durmiendo. here it says that when my friend arrived, at this moment , I was sleeping, preterito imperfecto, while my friend arrived.
What if it were a ghost or animal playing the violin? "I heard it playing the flute" should be correct, too
The subject isn't known, but it's something grammatically masculine that can play an instrument. That rules out la fantasma, but I guess it could be el duende.
Since the focus is on the instrument, would it be correct (and perhaps better) to say it like this? "La flauta lo oí tocar hace seis meses, pero el violín nunca lo oí tocar."
@defpub: That's backwards. The topic comes at the beginning, and the focus goes at the end.
I agree. But I love the harder sentences as I feel they test my true understanding of the language (which is not great but ever-improving!) You just need to break it down in to chunks and you get there eventually.
Having said that, I do not like testing sentences in the timed practice!
I have heard him playing the flute six months ago, but i have never heard him playing the violin... What's wrong Duo? :(
“I have heard him…six months ago” would be ‘Lo he oído…hace seis meses’. But the use of the present perfect with a specific time in the past is ungrammatical in both English and Spanish. For an action at a specific time in the past, the simple past tense (‘oí’ = “I heard”) is used. For a past action continuing to the present, the present perfect (‘he oído’ = “I have heard”) is used. For a past action continuing to another time in the past, the past perfect (‘había oído’ = “I had heard”) is used.
So i had a typo on months, spelled it moths and the whole thing is wrong! Sucks
To be fair, it does forgive many typos and flags obvious misspellings in English. And you can always close it and start all over after having seen most of the questions.
If I understand that "lo" can be "it/him/you" then why can't this mean "I heard YOU play....
And as usual I would ask, if this is incorrect (which DL has already said it is) how would you say: I heard you...
“I heard you play…” is correct. See the reply to dmc343. Please report it using the ‘Report a Problem’ button.
In general, how to say “I heard you…” depends on who “you” is: for familiar singular, it's ‘Te oí…’; for familiar plural, it's ‘Os oí’; for formal singular, it's ‘Le oí’ in leismo dialects, otherwise either ‘Lo oí…’ or ‘La oí…’, depending on the gender of “you”; and for formal plural, it's ‘Les oí’ in leismo dialects, otherwise either ‘Los oí…’ or ‘Las oí…’, depending on the gender of “you”.
Thanks for the clarification. The earlier response to dmc wasn't as 'buttoned up' for me to understand whether it was verified or just a guess.
texmexchicca- because in your way, it's like if you heard him play during 6 months, but the sentence means, that you heard him play 6 months ago, and maybe just for one time.
I guess the best thing I can say about Duo, my spelling and typing abilities is that in the end all i have to is be able to read and speak spanish, not write
I had no idea you could say "hace seis meses." Which literally means "ago six months." Good to know.. I would think seis meses hace...