¿Te gusto? ¡Ayúdame por favor!
Why is "No te gusto." "You do not like me."? Wouldn't the correct translation of that be "You do not like."? But then I guess it would have to be "No te gusta." with an 'a' right? What does the 'o' on the end of "gusto" do?
I was taught that gustar means to please ("me gusta(n) " -- " pleases me" ; "Mucho gusto" -- "Much pleasure" or "It's a pleasure to meet you"). So, "¿Te gusto?" would mean "Do I please you". The -o means that you are doing the action (giving the pleasure) and the "te" is receiving it (the pleasure).
Gustar is closer in meaning to "to be liked" over "to like"
When you say "Gusto", you are saying "I am liked" (like saying "I am a likeable person")
"Te gusto" translates to "You like me", but it literally means "I am liked by you".
This is a good example of how something could be said in Spanish, even though you would probably never hear a native Spanish speaker say it. Even fluent Spanish speakers have to think about how to ask that question using the "gustar" verb. "¿Te caigo bien?" would sound better. Caigo is from the verb caer, to fall. The expression translated literally means "Do I fall well to you?" but the sense of the expression is "Do you like me?" or "Do I come across well to you?" VOID's answer is right on target, and leroux is correct, too.
Gustar literally means "to be pleasing" rather than "to like" (similar to what Resonance2001 said). Hence, when you say "Me gusta el libro" you are literally saying "The book is pleasing to me" - hence the conjugation of the verb gustar is gusta because it's referring to the book. For your example of "No te gusto" this literally means "I am not pleasing to you" but figuratively means "You don't like me" in this case the conjugation of gustar is gusto because it refers to "I" and the te is the "you" part. Basically gustar is a bit of a backwards verb!
I think the o on gusto is what tells you the reference is to me. as in leo, veo or escribo ( I read, I see, I write)
gustar is one of a number of verbs that is a 'to...' verb. I understand it as a "to be pleasing TO" sort of meaning for example, someone would show me one object and say "¿Le gusta?" = is it pleasing to you? or if that person shown me a number of things: ¿Le gustan? = Are they pleasing to you? (or to him / her)
It's not actually a reflexive verb. The 'Me', 'Te', 'Le' etc rather than being reflexive is actually an indirect object pronoun. That means that the 'Me' or 'Te' refers to who is receiving the action - the indirect object answers the question "To whom?". So for Me gusta el libro - Lit. "The book is pleasing to me". No te gusto - "I am not pleasing to you" i.e. you don't like me. You can also tell it's not reflexive because the subject and the receiver are not the same "The car is pleasing to me" - Subject - car, receiver - me.
thank you everyone - lesson 6 has been driving me mad as I just don't get it!
Sorry, folks, but I am still confused, even after gjones108's helpful explanation below and I think Google Translate is what is making me confused and am wondering (hence checking with you folks) if it is just incorrect in usage of gustar in sentences? It translates "You don't like me" to "No me gusta" (incorrect?) but then it also translates "No me gusta" to "I do not like" (correct?). Also, it translates "They don't like me" to "A mí no me gusta"!! (which seems wrong). Shouldn't "They don't like me" be "No les gusto"? and "I don't like them" be "No me gustan"?
You got it a little backwards in the end. "No les gusto" is I don't like them while "No me gustan" is they don't like me
Raynan17 is incorrect. Like it has been explained above me, te, le, nos, les are all indirect object pronouns. Since the literal translation of gustar is "to be pleasing" you can think of the IOP in Spanish as being the subject when translated to English.
For example: No me gusta pescado translates commonly to I don't like fish. Easy enough. Things get a little bit more complicated when we start talking about liking people. (sidenote: this type of liking is usually used in a more romantic context. As CalvoViejo stated above an expression with the verb caer is used to form a non-romantic idea of liking. Ex. Te cayeron bien mis amigos? Did you like my friends?)
So, let's look at examples of this more romantic liking: Me gustas is I like you. ¿Te gusto? is Do you like me?
One more thing. Google translate almost always uses the "usted" form when translating "you" from English, just something to keep in mind. The first translation: "You don't like me" to "No me gusta" is completely incorrect. It should be "No te gusto". The second translation "No me gusta" to "I do not like" is technically correct but it seems a bit funny without an object in English. A more correct translation would be "I do not like it/him/her". Where does the it/him/her come from? It is inherent in the third person singular conjugation of gustar.
Perhaps a bit verbose, but I hope it helps.
It's a weird verb, exactly like in Italian, with piacere. Gustar means "to please". Translate it that way and it will all make sense. No te gusto? is literally "I don't please you?" which is then changed to "You don't like me?"
"No te gusto" means, literally, "I am not pleasing to you." The flavor of it is something like: "I am not to your taste." The meaning translates to English as "you do not like me."
But watch out for past tense: "No te gustó" -- which would be a much more common thing to hear, imo -- means "you didn't like it." It would translate literally as "it did not please you"
(Uh, well, and In context, it could also mean you didn't like her or him. sorry. try looking for a spanish grammar site for more.)