Translation:I have never walked to your house.
as far as i know, its correct, german doesn't differentiate between these two. both versions are correct and perfect english, thoh not exactly the same.
I am not a German speaker, but I suppose that using "noch nie" makes the "have never walked" version a little more "precise".
Because "never" is one of those words that requires a Perfect tense in English.
It's not amazing English, and you're skipping the 'bin'... but similarly :) why is "I have still never walked to your house?" incorrect?
There is no "still" in the sentence and adding one changes the sentence's meaning, while removing the "have" doesn't.
I would guess because the German uses "gelaufen" which isn't technically the same as "gone" in English (though the ideas are very similar).
I just tried using "I have never before walked to your house" and DL did not accept it, though to me it seems like a perfect translation (and "never before" is listed among the DL hints).
I agree with "before", as well as with "yet". However DL's solution leaves "noch" untranslated.
Can't I say "I have STILL never walked to your house"?
I don't understand the purpose of 'noch'
"nie" means "never", "noch" means "yet", so the answer should be "I have never yet walked to your house". Duo does not like it, but it is correct and I have reported it.
Kind of like "not ever yet", "yet never", it's an emphasis on the "nie"
I translated -noch nie- as -never yet- but DL counted it wrong. It is not excellent English but seems to get closer to the German: it conveys like the German that the speaker is considering doing it. At least that is my take. I think German could also say: Ich habe nie zu deinem Haus gelaufen.
I too said "never yet". Why is it not excellent English ? Everything always depends on context.
Hello! Why does "Haus" take the dative here to give "deinem" instead of "dein" in accusative, given that this answers the "where to" question and hence should be in accusative? Thanks :)
Why can't you add "yet" to the end of it? Is that not what "noch" means in this context?
"I have never yet walked to your house" was not accepted. Not only is this a direct translation of the German, but it is legitimate English, and means the same as the recommended translation.
"Never" and "still never", or "never yet" would all seem to be correct translations of "noch nie" in this case. Whilst they all mean "never", what may be inferred from each translation is slightly different. My guess is that German speakers pick this up from the context. Perhaps one could advise.
I think this should be accepted as a translation of "Ich bin noch nie zu deinem Haus gelaufen": "I have not ever ran to your house"
I think that emphases that the past tense statement is effective right up to the present moment, as with the English present perfect. Without the noch I think it could mean "I never walked to your house" which would place the action in the past, but not necessarily with effect up to the present time depending on the context.
Is the "noch" necessary? I am not always certain when "noch" and especially "doch" are used.
"Ich bin noch nie zu deinem Haus gelaufen." Translation:I have never walked to your house. How does the translation change if "noch" is removed? How does the meaning change if "noch" is removed?