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  5. "Este término no se usa más."

"Este término no se usa más."

Translation:This term is no longer used.

October 30, 2013



Wouldn't this be better said as "Este término ya no se usa"?


It is a more natural form to say it. That would be a correct traslation but not as literal as DL wants it


I'm not a scholar, but I would think that your sentence has a different meaning. "This term is already not used." Way different emphasis.


"Ya" doesn't always translate to "already." I've heard it used to mean "now" and "anymore" quite often. I'd agree that rfitzgerald's translation is more natural.


I don't understand this translation at all?? Duo translates it as "This term is not used still"


I wrote, 'This term is no longer used', and it was marked correct.
It means that this term/word/phrase is not used/written/spoken anymore.


If Duo said that, leavitt82, Duo is being funny again. For one thing, standard English puts "still" between "is" and "not," but that is a much different meaning from the consensus translations such as "This term is not used any more." Duo's sentence means that the term has never been used up to and including the present moment, while the sentence just given means that the term was formerly used.


I see your point, Duo gave me two correct answers, one of which is what they wanted to convey in the first place. 'this term is no longer used'. However the second one 'this term is not used still' conveys, as you have said, 'this term is not used still' has the connotation of it never has been used. I got it wrong by using 'much' but that's ok. I am learning I am going to report the 'funny one. haha Thank you.


I put "This term is not used any more" and Duo said there shouldn't be a space between any and more, but they did accept it ;)


I put the same "this term is not used any more" and it did not accept it


I did the same, and again I thought that Duo needs an English spelling course! You can't write "anymore"!


Yep, you can. It's chiefly Nth American English (which DL uses) but you will find it in the OED as an alternative spelling for "any more." Incidentally, some people/places use "anymore" as an adverb, meaning "any longer," but "any more" as an adverb+adjective combo eg "I don't want any more food" or an adjective+noun combo eg "I don't want any more." All that said, both "anymore" and "any more" should be accepted in this sentence.


I grew up in Pennsylvania (that's in North America) with 'anymore'. Seventy years of using 'anymore'.


For furthermore clarification on when to use "anymore" and "any more," see this link: https://www.grammarly.com/blog/anymore-vs-any-more/

This link is interesting because it discusses how "nowadays" is sometimes used as a synonym of "anymore." Using the "nowadays" interpretation, "Este término no se usa más" could be translated as "This term is not used nowadays."


My ignorance centers here on "se usa" I don't know what words or forms of words these are from, since I know se as a form of saber and the needed form of usar would seem to me to be usado. This feels strange to me at my point of study, not so advanced but these are such simple words, seemingly.


the 'se' here is not from saber. "se" + 3rd person verb is used as a form of 'false passive" in Spanish. Como se dice = How is it said? So 'se usa' = is used and 'no se usa' = no longer used.


Why is 'no se usa' = 'no longer used' rather than 'is not used'. I translated their sentence as 'this term is not used much". If both are OK, is it just a matter of context?


"No se usa" does equal "is not used" but "no se usa mas"="is no longer used." In the positive "mas"="more/most" but in the negative it changes to "any more." So,"Este término no se usa más"="This term is not used any more" or "This term is no longer used."


ah of course, thx


Is there a good resource for understanding se better?


I have never found ONE resource that has all the se uses. Here is a list of different SE uses and specific links to each use.
1. reflexive se
2. se to imply a change of meaning
http://www.spanishdict.com/topics/show/85 (scroll down to meaning changes)
http://www.studyspanish.com/lessons/reflexive2.htm (scroll down to meaning changes)
3. reciprocal se (each other)
4. Indirect object se (when using an indirect object and direct object together)
5. passive se
6. impersonal se
7. accidental se (no fault)
8. sé (conjugation of saber-first person singular present)
9. sé (conjugation of ser-second person informal imperative)

More resources on se


Good effort MissSpell - if someone with some spare time could collate, combine and compress all that it would be great :) I think "se" is one word DL does not focus enough on - when you read the discussions in the reverse course they are littered with "se." According to this http://www.vistawide.com/spanish/top_100_spanish_words.htm it is the 9th most common Spanish word. Unfortunately it also seems to be one of the most complex. Maybe DL just put it in the too hard basket, but it would be good if they could add an exclusive exercise on it, or at least include more examples of it in the other lessons.


Thank you jellonz

I would love for DL to make se its own skill, including all its uses. I have to say, in the spanish classes i've taken and spanish grammar books I own, there is not one comprehensive list for se uses. Anything that has come close didn't have helpful explanations for the various uses. So it's not just DL who has put se in the 'too hard' basket. I've only compiled this list for my own sanity.

I promise, in the unlikely event that i master spanish, i will create a perfect and comprehensive se lesson. (return in 20 years)


¡Esa es una gran explicación! ¡Muchas gracias!


Uses of "Se"

12 minutes of explanation here which I found quite helpful:



Your link just describes standard use of reflexive verbs, which confused me as the English translation of this is not reflexive. I then found the following link, which gives a much better description of use of 'se' in this context where a reflexive is being used as a substitute for the passive voice (apparently it is 'true passive' not 'false passive' as rspreng suggested). http://books.google.ca/books?id=qUAIwYeceUcC&pg=PA166&lpg=PA166&dq=false+passive+spanish&source=bl&ots=TbmFK0a7Ut&sig=Ea6QRyWOrh81LUwODz3VQZgUu7k&hl=en&sa=X&ei=siDYUp-BM4b6kQfVyIGoAQ&ved=0CCsQ6AEwAA#v=onepage&q=false%20passive%20spanish&f=false


Sorry, that link is a bit long and hasn't worked properly. Copy the whole text rather than clicking or use the following: http://tinyurl.com/falsepassive.


it s really annoying that people thinks your comments are really enlightening but i don't have any idea what you're talking about. i don't have a basic english grammar knowledge, is that the reason?


These terms can really get confusing. Here's my take:

True Passive: The door was closed [by the police]. True passive is used to describe an action itself without expressing the doer (or agent) of the action. In Spanish this is very similar to English: La puerta fue cerrada [por la policía].

Passive Se: Se can be used to describe an action itself without expressing the agent. This form is much more common than true passive. For example: Se cerró la puerta. Of course this does not translate literally into English, but means The door was closed [by someone/something].

False Passive: The door was closed. In English, this sentence can also be interpreted as describing an attribute of the door (rather than the action on the door). For example, when answering the question, Can you describe the door?, you could say, The door was closed/wooden/red. Think of the closed as an adjective rather than a verb. Although it sounds like passive voice, it isn't (so false passive). In Spanish, this is expressed differently than is true passive, using estar instead of ser: La puerta estaba cerrada.


In Spanish classes this is referred to as the "impersonal se". Used for stating general truths. Or it can also be translated as "one". How does one say=Cómo se dice


Impersonal se would translate to One no longer uses this term, and that sounds quite unnatural and overly formal in English. I believe the use of se in this example is instead passive voice (where no agent of action is expressed): This term is no longer used.

Differentiating the use of impersonal se from passive se is tricky. The big clue is that impersonal se never takes a direct object. With este término no se usa, término is a direct object of usa, so this sentence can't be impersonal.

In general, impersonal se accepts intransitive verbs or transitive verbs without a direct object, whereas passive se accepts only transitive verbs with direct objects. In short, if se + verb has a direct object then it is passive, and if there is no direct object, then is it impersonal.


This term is not used any longer....should be accepted


Do you have any evidence to support your supposition that anyone reads and acts on the reports anymore?


I received 2 emails on March 20 (2 weeks ago) that DL had accepted two of my suggested translations. So, yes, they do read and act on the reports.
Also, DL staff had indicated that they do not generally read the comment sections, so if you report an problem here, it will likely not be seen (or corrected).


That's very interesting. I've reported several very obvious translations and never received an email either either accepting or rejecting my suggestions. They are programmers. It should be easy to automate the process. They get the suggestion and click "accept" or reject" and an email gets sent. But I've never received anything or seen any changes made, either from my suggestions or others.


I just got an email today saying they corrected something I reported.


I have had loads of emails accepting my alternative translations, but then again I've made loads of suggestions. Generally they take a while to come through so have patience. They are paying attention and continously improving. It must not be easy for them to programme all possible permutations.


I've reported all kinds of things and only received one email telling me my translation was accepted. I am fairly new but I'm positive that more than that were correct. I agree that even if your translation isn't accepted, they could send an email letting you know it had been reviewed.


That is absurd! But it is good to know how to go about getting things changed. This program is full of inconsistancies!


I get e-mails from DL accepting suggestions every once in awhile. It does take quite awhile, but they definitely do read the reports. For a free program, I think they do a fantastic job!


Yes. I have received two emails saying that they were accepting changes I suggested in reports.


Absolutely! I often receive emails that thank me for a suggestion and say that it is now accepted.


Double negative. Improper English.


What is wrong with This term is not used much


It's something DL hasn't taught us that I noticed, but in the negative "mas" changes from "more/most" into "any more". "Mucho" would fit better with your translation I think.


Thanks for this, I couldn't figure out what was wrong either.


I tried the same thing.


What is wrong with This term is not used much


Actually I wrote a lot rather than much


I guess I am in the wrong boat. I read it without more context clues as "This end is no longer used. as in "this end of the road is no longer used." I will have passed away before I finish this segment at this rate. NOt a good experience at this point.


That makes two of us hoping to live to see the end of this section.


What is 'emparedado'?


A: Este término no se usa más. Q: What is 'emparedado'?


So could we also say "Este término no usarse más" or ¨Este término no se usa ya más¨?


You could use the second. The first isn't right, since it is using the infinitive, not the conjugatef form.


this term is not used anymore


They do not use this term anymore. Was not accepted


There is no "they" in the sentence. That's why your answer was incorrect.


I put in "no one uses this term any more" but it said it was incorrect


This term is not in use anymore. I see no reason why it's not accepted.


I put the same/ I never would have guesses used since usa is the present tense, can anyone explain why this shouldn't be este término no se usó más


It is the se in this sentence that changes the form of the sentence. It changes the sentence into passive voice.
A common example:
"Se habla español" "Spanish is spoken here"


Awkwardly formal


This term is not in use anymore?


my dictionary stated that usase indicated "in fashion". "This term is no longer in fashion" seems like a perfectly reasonable translation


That's a slang stretch.


"This term isn't used anymore" should be accepted.


Is it "Este" (not esto or esta) because we are not certain of the gender of the term?


No, it's "este" because that is the masculine form of the demonstrative adjective, which is needed when modifying "término".

In an otherwise fairly logical language Spanish makes a meal of demonstratives. "Esto" exists as a demonstrative pronoun, but not as a demonstrative adjective, and "este" becomes "estos" in plural etc. Also there's the tilde issue, which used to be compulsory for the pronouns, but no longer is. Anyway, here's the full breakdown (M=masculine, F=feminine, N=neuter, S=singular, P=plural):

Demonstrative Adjectives

This: MS - este; FS - esta; MP - estos; FP - estas
That: MS - ese; FS - esa; MP - esos; FP - esas
That (over there): MS - aquel; FS - aquella; MP - aquellos; FP - aquellas

Note there is no neuter demonstrative adjective as adjectives will always be modifying a noun, which will be masculine or feminine.

Demonstrative Pronouns

This: MS - este; FS - esta; NS - esto; MP - estos; FP - estas
That: MS - ese; FS - esa; NS - eso; MP - esos; FP - esas
That (over there): MS - aquel; FS - aquella; NS - aquello; MP - aquellos; FP - aquellas

Note that the neuter pronouns are used to substitute for a concept or an action, not for gendered nouns. As such they only exist in singular form.

Note also that the neuter pronouns don't take a tilde. The tilde is optional for all other pronouns. If used it is placed on the natural stress, which in these cases is always the first "e": éste, aquéllas etc. Demonstrative pronouns always used to take the stress mark to differentiate them from adjectives, but now the RAE advises that the stress mark is only necessary if ambiguity exists.


Thanks for the great response! That really helps clear things up. Little by little the puzzle pieces are coming together.


I looked up usa and this is in the present tense. Duo translates it "this term is not used anymore. Confused!


please see rspreng's comments in this section


Ha-ha, DL makes a joke on us. Español-Inglés dictionaries do not list "still" as a translation of "más". The phrase that is not used still is "no se usa más"


My Spanish vocabulary book suggest the verb "desursarse" for "to be no longer in use". Perhaps that would have been a better choice for Duo.


That would not be good because you would not hear that term often


I had 'they don't use this term anymore'


In the Spanish, is the subject really "term?" It looks to me as though it literally is "one does no use this term more." Though DL disallowed this, I am still curious.


what's wrong with "This term is used no more"???


Seems good to me. You should report it.


Improper English.


"Como se dice" means "how do you say." So why not "They don't use this term any more"?


I am wondering if this is an idiom. It looks like present tense to me but the spanish translation is past tense. Can anyone help?


In this case, 'se' makes the statement passive voice in English.
For example:
(Active voice) He uses the book.
(Passive voice) The book is being used by him.


¡Hola Roger & jellonz! Your disagreement brought back some memories to me. When I worked as a proofreader, I remarked to some colleagues about the similarity between English progressive voice (is/are + present participle) and the "is/are" + predicate adjective construction. For example, "The door is opened" and "The door is open."

I was promptly told that the participle cannot be a verb complement (aka predicate adjective) because it is already part of a compound verb. And they were right, in terms of how these things are labelled in English grammar. But I was right, too, in the respect that both past and present participles can be used as adjectives: the running man, the fallen tree, etc. My point is that these grammatical labels and descriptions are used to explain the syntax of a specific sentence, not always to define it in one, and only one, way. Sometimes it's useful to be able to parse a sentence in various ways. Spanish rules of grammar, in fact, do consider participles to be acting as adjectives when they are in the predicate complement position, at least that's what I read somewhere.

This being said, my first instinct is to call this example a passive voice sentence. On the other hand, for the sake of discussion, there might be occasions when it is necessary to define the sentence as having a present progressive verb, and such verbs are, at least in some languages, considered to be active verbs. Quite simply, there's more than one way to skin a mango!


Isn't 'usa' present tense? How is the translation past tense


It's not past tense. The "is" tells us it is present tense. If in doubt you can reword it to confirm: This term is no longer in use.


Why wouldn't one say, "Este termino no se usO mas" (that's an accented O). It would make the tense clearer. Usa in this sentence is present tense but is interpreted as past tense. Am I right?


why can't I use the present? One no longer uses this term.


I had to pick words from those offered , if I had to translate it myself I I would have guessed "this term is not used much" rather that no longer used. How would you say it is not used much?


I think you could just change "más" to "mucho."


The English translation is incorrect: any more is and has always been two words, not joined together as Americanisms now seem to dictate.


Why won't it accept this. "This term is not used much."


That would be Este término no se usa mucho. It's very common to confuse mucho (much) and más (more).


"The term isn't used anymore" should be accepted


why not este termino no es usa mas


Another reason:

Usar is a transitive verb, which means it takes an object: X usa Y = X uses Y.

When no obvious object exists the verb can still be used in its pronominal form to reflect the action back on the subject: X se usa = X is used.

An alternative is the Spanish passive voice formed by using "ser + past participle": X es usado = X is used.

Note that although there is a difference in Spanish, there is none in English. Passive is passive.

The difference in Spanish (I'm 90% on this so invite comments) is that their true passive is generally only used when the "doer" is mentioned (or known through context). If not, then the pronominal form would be preferred. So: X es usado por Y = X is used by Y. But: X se usa (is more normal than) X es usado.


So it's correct to say X es usado por Y? What about X está usado por Y?


What about X está usado por Y?

That wouldn't work, at least not in the way I think it was intended. The passive voice requires "ser" plus the past participle.

You can use "estar" with past participles to describe something's condition: La puerta está cerrada = The door is closed. But this is using the past participle as an adjective to describe the state of the door.

So "X está usado" would mean "X is secondhand." I guess you could translate "por" as a preposition of position, but it would result in an odd sentence in both languages I think :) Maybe "por" as a cause would work, I'm not sure, but the resulting translation would be: "X is secondhand because of Y."


One reason is because "...es usa..." puts two conjugated verbs together. That's not allowed in Spanish.


I put, "this end can't be used anymore." I'm looking in the comments to see why I'm wrong, and I must be really far off!


Not so far off Debusscs. If you were trying to express a physical end these words may be more common: final; extremo; ❤❤❤❤❤; límite. I think "término" is most often used to represent a temporal end, which wouldn't really work in your sentence, but it can also express a spacial end, so it should still be acceptable.

The real problem is your introduction of "can't." It is not present in the Spanish version, which just translates as "is not" not "cannot." For that maybe: Este término no puede usarse más / Este término no se puede usar más.


I suspect that DL is objecting to your use of the word "can't" for which it probably wants some form of "poder." It may accept "This end is not used any more." Then again, it may not like "end."


Since it appears in the present tense, I would think the translation should be: "One does not use this term anymore"


I put "This term no one uses much" and DUO marked it wrong. What places this statement in the past tense and where does "no longer" come from. Duo´s translations seem, to me, to be very subjective.


Why not," this term is no longer used"?


Why is 'not longer' wrong?


What was your full sentence? I can't think of any way "not longer" would be correct: "not used any longer" is fine, otherwise it needs to be "no longer used".


Este término ya no se usa, ¡intenta evolucionar!


What is the correct translation of, "Este término no se usa menos" ?


I think it would sound odd in English (and in Spanish): This terminal is not used less.


Would "este término no sigue a ser (or estar?) usando" be possible?


What about this term isn't used much?


I said "This term is of no more use." Isn't that close enough?


Este término...
→ ya no sirve / no sirve más.
→ ya no es útil (más).


I'd say it's a little different, chrispenni. Your sentence is about the usefulness of the term, while the given sentence is about whether in fact it is being used.


"This term is used no more." -- not accepted.


Since when is mas "still" or "longer"? Huh???


In this context. You can't always use a word-for-word translation. The best direct translation I can come up with is, "This term is no more used". Of course, this is not how we would say this in English, so you have to tweak the translation a bit to make it sound more natural.
The best way to do this is to say, "This term is no longer used":
So, it's not that 'mas' translates to 'longer', but that the translation itself has to be changed to sound like what someone may actually say.


must be offensive


Do you not think that dulingo should find someone to translate properly so that we can actually learn something from this

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