"The girl likes her cups."
Translation:Jenta liker koppene sine.
"Hennes" can be used because the cups belong to the girl...but it would just as acceptable to use "sine" instead, right? It just won't specify that the girl owns the cups.
No: 'sine' implies that the subject('jenta' in this sentence) owns the cups, 'hennes' would imply that the object(not mentioned in this sentence) owns the cup.
So in this particular sentence it's understood that some other girl owns the cups and the not the girl who's the subject?
No: 'sine' here implies that the subject, the girl, owns the cups, and not some other girl/woman. Were 'hennes' to be used it would imply that the subject didn't own the cups, but some other girl/woman.
Jenta liker koppene sine. = The girl likes her own cups.
Jenta liker koppene hennes. = The girl likes the cups of someone else.
My answer was "Jenta liker koppene hennes" but this app says another translation would be "Jenta liker koppene sine" . So both are accepted.
I didn't say they weren't accepted, I just said the owner of the cups would be different.
Jenta liker koppene sine = The girl likes her (own) cups
Jenta liker koppene hennes = The girl likes her (someone else's) cups
I said "jenta liker hennes kopper" would this mean the girl likes some other girls cups or her own cups :p? It was accepted :)
It would mean that she likes some other girl's cups.
"Jenta" is the subject of the sentence, and "si/sin/sitt/sine" would be used to point the ownership back to the subject.