"He oído suficiente."

Translation:I have heard enough.

November 1, 2013



Question for native speakers - Would I be correct to assume this expression is used when you're getting upset and do not wish to listen any further?

March 15, 2014


Sí. But if you're upset you should use «ya», as in «ya he oido suficiente».


Why not "ya"? Just joking. We use it quite often, I think in this case it is emphasizing the "suficiente", and it sounds more natural to use it if the speaker is upset, there are other sentences like "haven't you done enough?", we also like to add a "ya" to this (even if there's not an "already" in the English sentence) just to have more emphasis, as in: "¿no has hecho suficiente ya?"


Very clear, alezzzix. Thanks so much!


So should 'ya' be used at the beginning or end of the sentence? Or does it not matter?


We use the word ya so much that some people even feel like they have to say it twice, they put one at the beginning and another one at the end, but that's very colloquial. I think in most cases it will sound more natural to use it at the beginning of the sentence, sometimes when we use it at the end it takes the meaning of now, for example:

  • Yo lo quiero ya. (I want it now).
  • Voy a hacerlo ya. (I'm going to do it now).

In those cases ya is a short way to say ya mismo, which is the informal version of ahora mismo (right now).


I've heard enough already or I've heard enough now. That is the purpose of YA.


Thanks for the note


Something mothers all over the world say.


Would "He oído bastante." be equivalent, or would it change the meaning?


Ah, didn't see that someone already asked this. My feeling is that bastante implies "enough" as in "enough is enough!" One sees it on banners at political demonstrations, for instance: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ya_basta


Anyone else read that as odio instead of oído?


Why not I heard enough?


IRL that would probably be fine, but Duo does focus on details and the word "have" is in this sentence.


Native english speakers would say "enough", but never "I heard sufficient"


Would suficiente be more likely used or less than bastante?


"I have heard sufficient" was accepted, though that's not proper English in my book. In that sentence, sufficient is describing how I heard, therefore it needs to be an adverb; not an adjective. So, even though it's not a literal translation, I think the best translation of meaning would be "I heard sufficiently" E.g. if I was in an audience and someone asked me if I could hear well enough where I was sitting. After looking at the discussion & seeing that "I have heard enough" is the intended translation, that makes more sense, but it's not really equivalent in meaning to the literal translation. Oh well.

  • suficiente - what/how much you heard
  • suficientemente - how well you heard it


How about 'I have listened to enough' ?


That would probably be Yo he escuchado suficiente. Listening and hearing are different.


What about I have listened enough....very close


This sentence sounds like it starts with heigh ho. I may never train my ears. But at least I can read good spanish and the comments help with that


Why is "I have heard sufficient" not accepted?


"I have heard sufficiently" would be the correct English sentence rather than just "sufficient". But I don't know if this matches the Spanish translation


What is wrong with "I have heard sufficient"?


"Sufficient" is one of those weird adjectives that don't like to stand alone. Some noun has to follow it.


both "i have heard enough" and "I heard enough are accepted"? Why? I have noticed that sometimes, when translating to english, both forms are accepted and sometimes not. Why?


what a girlfriend would say to her boyfriend after he was caught cheating.


I have heard enough from you


Could this also be 《Tengo oído suficiente》?


No. Tener is not used to form perfect tenses, that's what haber is for.


I wrote "He has heard enough"

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