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  5. "Çayı içeriz."

"Çayı içeriz."

Translation:We drink the tea.

September 16, 2015



How is Çayı pronounced here? Is it chai-li? The "ı" at the end sounds like an "L".


It is pronounced exactly how it is written (as are almost all Turkish words). There is no "l" sound and I also do not really heard it :)


In some dialects, dark l /ɫ/ is often realised as [ɯ], which is, incidentally, the sound of the Turkish ı. So, to someone who knows a dialect that does this, it is natural to ‘hear’ an /ɫ/ there.


In some dialects of what language does this happen?


where is biz(we) in this sentence


iceriz, iz ending means we


Çayı is pronounced as Chayeii


Why the answer DRINK THE TEA is not correct


Because "Drink the tea" is a command. "Drink the tea." = "Çayı iç."


Because the correct translation is "We drink the tea".


What is difference between Çay and Çayı??


A little reminder from a native speaker just in case you encounter it in a different skill. :)

Çay içeriz. / We drink tea.

Çayı içeriz. / We drink the tea.

The "-ı" is the accusative suffix.


What is the difference between "drink tea" and "drink the tea" - is that just a mistake in the answer or is this sentence really making a distinction?


There is a difference. :)

"Drink the tea" means you are talking about a specific bit of tea that has been brought up in the conversation already. "Drink tea" means you are telling them to drink tea in general. No specific tea is implied. :)


The Turkish distinction is in the last ı.

  • Çay would be "tea"
  • Çayı is "the tea".


And remember, this is only true for direct objects. The accusative doesn't appear anywhere else (except for some time expressions).


Not that I've gotten to this point in the lessons yet - but does this mean that you can't tell whether a noun is definite or indefinite unless it's in the direct object position? thanks


Besides the accusative, there are other grammatical cues for understanding the status of a noun. E.g. if you see "bir" before the noun, you can immediately tell it's indefinite.


where is biz(we) in this sentence


Turkish allows you to omit the subject when verb conjugations make it clear.

So, "biz" is hidden in the conjugation of içeriz


You are my hero :)


and please tell me what accusative case and nominative case in simple words


Generally, nominative cases happen to subjects, while accusative cases happen to objects.

In grammar, a "subject" is the one that performs the action in a sentence. (In this case, "we" are the ones who perform drinking, "we" is the subject)

An "object" is what is "being acted upon" or "towards who/what the action goes". (The accusative case happens to what is being acted upon). In this case, the "tea" is what is being drunk, thus "tea" is the object.

In Turkish, the accusative case happens to "specific objects". The accusative case is identified by a suffix in the end of the word. The effect in English is adding the definite article "the".

  • Biz çay içeriz - Here, "çay" is in its normal form, not an accusative case.

It means "we drink tea" (general tea)

  • Biz çayı içeriz - Here "çay" has got the suffix ı being an accusative case

It means "we drink the tea" (specific tea)


thanks very very much


can you tell about changing words e.g limon into lemonu , et into eti I cant understand on duolingo tips


So when is accusative then you can omit the personal form? Like 'çayı içeriz' , 'şekerı yer' and so on?


Omission of subject pronouns has nothing to do with the accusative. They should be omitted in most cases, except for when the speaker needs to emphasize the subject for some reason.


So how can i tell if the person drinking the tea is biz as in we or siz as in them if the conjugation of içer is the same for both?


Biz is 'we' and Siz is plural/polite 'you'. And conjugation for both isn't same.

We drink = Biz içeriz (or simply içeriz)

You (pl) drink = Siz içersiniz

Please pay attention.

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