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  5. "Skriver mennene bøkene?"

"Skriver mennene bøkene?"

Translation:Are the men writing the books?

September 16, 2015

8 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Zelny

From what I gather, if the noun precedes the verb it's a declaritive statement, if the verb precedes the noun is a question. So "mennene skriver" is "the men write", whereas "skriver mennene" translates to "do the men write?" I hope that helps.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/FredCapp

I just tried that and it said that I got it wrong. "ARE the men writING books.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Regney
  • 2299

'Bøkene' is definite, and it needs the definite article in its translation, i.e., 'the books.'


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Onion_Cat

Why is "write the men the books" wrong?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Luke_5.1991

Yes. It doesn't sound natural at all.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Gary_Kotka

It is not a question. 'Skriver mennene bøkene?' is a question, as heard from the intonation of the sentence. Hope this helps.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/NikkieAugspurger

It isn't a natural sentence, and it's not a question, even if it weren't a question it would be wrong, it would be "The men write the books."


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/ArtBurnap

In a sentence that has helping verbs, both English and most European languages can form questions by moving the helping verb before the subject. This is called inversion. However, though most European languages, including Norwegian, can do the same thing with a main verb that has no helping verbs, English cannot, except for the verb to be (as a main verb), or also 'have' in the UK. English makes us add the helping verb 'do' to make questions with those verbs using inversion, as it also requires us to use 'do' to make negatives. Thus: DO the men read the books? The men DO NOT read the books. It's a strange system compared to other European languages, but it's the one we're stuck with.

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