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  5. "According to the law the hou…

"According to the law the house is now ours."

Translation:Yasaya göre ev artık bizim.

September 18, 2015



Why would 'Hukuka göre ev artık bizim' be wrong?


how does artik = anymore translate here


I think it is only anymore when the sentence is negative, that is, something that used to happen is not happening anymore. "Artık we don't do that, sorry." In English: we don't do that anymore, sorry. The opposite of this is when it is a positive statement. "Artık we do that." In English: we do that now.


"artık" doesn't only mean "anymore." Here is actually means "from here on out" or "from now on," or, as simply stated in the best translation, "now." :)


Sooo, how should I say it if I want to emphasize that it is ALREADY ours? For example, we are buying a house. We paid, and signed the contract. And the seller says: "I will remove my stuff today and give you the keys tomorrow, and then the house will be all yours". To which I would say: "Well, actually... according to the law, the house is ALREADY ours." It is slightly different from saying "it is NOW ours", because it emphasizes the fact that it happened earlier than (the other party) assumed. It already happened. Maybe... "şimdiden" would be a good candidate in this case? Or "zaten"?



In that case, I would use "zaten" :)

'şimdiden' is most commonly used to mean "in advance" but it is also used in cases that something happened earlier than you thought.

"Artik" is used to indicate that some turning point has been reached.


You can use "halihazirda bizim" to emphasize it. Or "zaten artik bizim" would be a good alternative


Can bizim always be used instead of bizimki?


Bizim and bizimki are not interchangable. Bizim is usually follewed by naming what is owned "bizim koy" "bizim araba" etc. Bizimki is used when the name of the thing owned is already eastablished in the conversation and it does not have to be named again. You can not start the conversation with bizimki. It has to be identified first with bizim......something. Something here is the noun. Afterward, bizimki can be used, but the "ki" turns bizim into the noun in the sentence. Hope this helps


Thank you. I asked that question 3 months ago. During that time I figured out the difference. The easiest way for me to remember it is that bizim is the Spanish "nuestro" and bizimki is "el nuestro". Likewise benim is mío and benimki is el mío.


It is like "bizim" is "our (something)" or "ours",
and "bizimki" is "our one".


I agree except that we wouldn't say "our one" in English. More like "the one that belongs to us".


Why is in the help "yasalara göre" when it's wrong?


Could bizde be used instead of bizim (implying ownership ?)

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