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The best explanation for this use of "lhe" (and "lhes") that I've seen comes from "Modern Brazilian Portuguese Grammar" (Whitlam, 2011). The author says:
In the written language, and occasionally in the spoken language, the third person direct object pronouns o (for a male), a (for a female), os (for males or males and females) and as (for females only) and the indirect object pronouns lhe (for one person) and lhes (for more than one person) are used to mean ‘you’ with an equivalent degree of formality to o senhor/a senhora.
This formality aspect may explain why you find this usage odd while it seems to be used nonetheless.
"The husband writes to you" should be accepted. I don't know that it isn't, but judging from the comments it seems like it isn't. It should be accepted especially given that it is the British (aka where English came from) form of the sentence. And also since "I write you. " sounds stupid.
The husband writes to them, as some previous questions. Put lhe. As you / them. But. Now i understand from reading these comments. Lhe = you / him / her Lhes = you / them seems as in english we seperate. Him/her. From you/them but also, you, can be singular or plural in english. And yes us poor australians speak a dialect of amer-glish. Half half and then a lot of differene but we don't count
Let's say that if your verb need a preposition like /escrever para alguém/ (write to somebody), if you're going to use an object pronoun, you shall know that you must use /lhe/.
e.g. João escreve para Maria ― /Hansel writes to Gretel/ João escreve para ela ― /Hansel writes to her/ > João lhe escreve | escreve-lhe (not **a escreve|escreve-a, because this verb used a preposition) ― /Hansel writes to her/
João come carne ― /Hansel eats beef/ João a come | come-a ― /Hansel eats it/ Because it needs no preposition.
With indirect objects you substitute for /lhe/ and with direct /o|a/
[Edit: this comment was made when the model answer was "The husband writes her".]
I suppose you mean it should be "writes to" as others in this discussion have already suggested. You can put that down to an American/British English difference. See:
Section 2.2.4 Grammar/Verbs/Transitivity discusses the "write/write to" issue.
Usually both British and American English answers are accepted even though the American English versions are most likely to be used as the models for translation exercises.