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  5. "O marido lhe escreve."

"O marido lhe escreve."

Translation:The husband writes to her.

January 4, 2013

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"The husband writes to him" must surely be correct too.


I like your thinking man!


The husband writes to her.


well, that would mean a gay marriage.

in that case you would have 2 husbands

and the sentence would be "one of the husbands"


No. "The husband" can write anyone in the world. All we know is the recipient is singular ("lhe"). A pronoun substitutes for the person who has already been identified.


true, we dont have the context


him or her can both be accepted.


Why is "the husband writes to you" not correct?


I wrote "the husband writes to you" and it was accepted


"To you" would be translated literally as "para você", but it should be accepted, as "lhe" can be addressed to 'you', 'him' and 'her'


it's correct too, but i think is better (the husband writes to you=o marido escreva para você)


Escreva is the present of the Subjuntive, meaning (may) I/it/he/she/you write.


no, escreva is an imperative escreve is present tense


You are wrong. Both "escreva" and "escreve" are imperative:

  • Escreve (tu)
  • Escreva (você)


Because that would be "O marido te escreve" te = you lhe= him, her


"lhe" can be "you" according to Duolingo... can someone who natively speaks BP confirm this?


"lhe" can be "you" in the formal way. o marido lhe escreve (a você)


Yes, you're right, "lhe" replaces "to him/her" and "to you".


Personally I don't use it....but many people do....I'm not sure what is right in this case.


The best explanation for this use of "lhe" (and "lhes") that I've seen comes from "Modern Brazilian Portuguese Grammar" (Whitlam, 2011). The author says:

In the written language, and occasionally in the spoken language, the third person direct object pronouns o (for a male), a (for a female), os (for males or males and females) and as (for females only) and the indirect object pronouns lhe (for one person) and lhes (for more than one person) are used to mean ‘you’ with an equivalent degree of formality to o senhor/a senhora.

This formality aspect may explain why you find this usage odd while it seems to be used nonetheless.


That awkward moment when a native speaker learns from a non native speaker.

Thank you!


Most commonly, the object pronouns refering to "you" will replace the treatment pronoun "você" & "vocês". "O senhor" & "a senhora" are quite common, but rather formal.



This lesson really needs some explanation......I can kinda guess the answers but don't really understand them.

Anyone got a good link to something I could read about CLITIC PRONOUNS...what they are and how they are used in both languages?


Thanks...much study needed.

Reflexive verbs, reflexive pronouns, in the 80's they were explained like this:

"The reflex is an only child he's waiting in the park The reflex is in charge of finding treasure in the dark"



"The husband writes to you" should be accepted. I don't know that it isn't, but judging from the comments it seems like it isn't. It should be accepted especially given that it is the British (aka where English came from) form of the sentence. And also since "I write you. " sounds stupid.


The husband writes to them, as some previous questions. Put lhe. As you / them. But. Now i understand from reading these comments. Lhe = you / him / her Lhes = you / them seems as in english we seperate. Him/her. From you/them but also, you, can be singular or plural in english. And yes us poor australians speak a dialect of amer-glish. Half half and then a lot of differene but we don't count


Why is it lhe instead of o/a?


Let's say that if your verb need a preposition like /escrever para alguém/ (write to somebody), if you're going to use an object pronoun, you shall know that you must use /lhe/.

e.g. João escreve para Maria ― /Hansel writes to Gretel/ João escreve para ela ― /Hansel writes to her/ > João lhe escreve | escreve-lhe (not **a escreve|escreve-a, because this verb used a preposition) ― /Hansel writes to her/


João come carne ― /Hansel eats beef/ João a come | come-a ― /Hansel eats it/ Because it needs no preposition.

With indirect objects you substitute for /lhe/ and with direct /o|a/


what does lhe mean


This link has a thorough explanation.


This is not an english sentence, context please!


Something like:

The husband writes you (him/her) every month.

They are using the article here, so the husband is not identified. It could be your husband, her husband or even his husband - in some countries :)


[Edit: this comment was made when the model answer was "The husband writes her".]

I suppose you mean it should be "writes to" as others in this discussion have already suggested. You can put that down to an American/British English difference. See:


Section 2.2.4 Grammar/Verbs/Transitivity discusses the "write/write to" issue.

Usually both British and American English answers are accepted even though the American English versions are most likely to be used as the models for translation exercises.


British English answers should undoubtedly be accepted though. Especially given that a lot of people using the foreign language courses will be British. And also considering English comes from Britain..

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