In English, you tend not to put adverbs directly after finite verbs like that. The natural position when an adverb is placed next to a verb is just before the finite verb. However, if the finite verb is a form of 'to be' or is an auxiliary verb, then it follows the finite verb.
Cf. 'He is already here' (finite verb is 'be', so after), 'he should already be here' ('should' is an auxiliary verb, so after) 'he already has one' (general case, so before), 'he has already had one' ('has' is being used as an auxiliary verb, so after).
I am a native English speaker (US) and I sometimes write like the original poster -- and I wanted to answer this question in that way. Maybe it's because I have studied other languages, idk? But because of that, several of my international facebook friends didnt believe I was really a USAmerican until they met me. It doesnt have a native speaker flow.