How come the article for lunchtime can be ignored here but we couldn't ignore the article with juice on one of the other sentences? This isn't making sense to me.
Because this is referring (probably) to lunches in general, and not to a particular lunch. In English, an article would not be used for this purpose. Remember that la/el is NOT the same thing as "the", just as "bocadillo" is not the same thing as "sandwich" and "otro" is not the same thing as "another".
I was thinking the same thing and was glad to see that I'm not the only one thinking it.
To those asking about use of definite articles, see here - http://www.spanishdict.com/topics/show/5
The reason it's el almuerzo is that they were talking about lunch in general, not a specific lunch. That does seem backwards from English, but it is what it is. Hope this helps - AJ
Why do Spanish People talk so fast? I have to keep pressing the slow option to listen. In the real world thats not possible!
I hate to tell you - the "fast" on here is not nearly as fast as in real life. It's about 2/3 speed.
pretty much every language driven from Latin are fast (French, Spanish, Portuguese, Italian) i don't know why is that but i hate that too.
Does "beber" have the same connotations as "drinking" does in English in relation to alcohol?
Yes, it definitely can. It depends on the region though. Some regions use "tomar" to mean drink alcohol, but some use "beber".
Continued arbitrary translations. Most times you want it word for word. Then you suddenly decide that this needs to idiomatic. Inconsistency seems to be the basic, and sometimes, frustrating model. That is a poor paradigm for any teaching.
how do you say, "Lunchtime" in Spanish? I thought el almuerzo could also mean lunchtime from prior sentence translations.
They did say you could use lunchtime instead on the other sentence. The translations are inconsistent.
No. El almuerza means lunch only. Meal would be comida.
EDIT: if you wanted to specify "meal" instead of "food", you would use "régimen de comidas." But I think "la comida" can also work depending on context.
Might be a silly question, but why is it "el almuerzo" rather than just "almuerzo?"
I'm not fully sure why either, but usually in Spanish when talking about time frames a definite article is used (son las tres=it's 3 o'clock), since breakfast/lunch/dinner are time frames, the definite article is included, that's just my guess though xD
From what I remember being taught (and it's been a while)
almorzar is the verb to eat lunch, so to not get
almuerzo confused with the yo form of the verb, the el is added to clarify the intention is the noun - not the verb.
Does anyone else use the microphone? I've used 3 different microphones and none work well on here. I gave up and skipped this question after repeating the answer about 20 times and it still couldn't understand me. Would be handy to be able to practice speaking but the microphone function is useless.
It works for me - but it often accepts phrases that are not even close to what it wanted you to say. I had the TV on too loud once and it accepted it.
Yes, it takes a while to get used to, but the subject can be dropped in certain form of verbs because there is only one possible translation. "yo" forms typically end in "-o" in the present tense, therefore we can tell that "bebo" means "I drink" even though we didn't specifically say "yo bebo". The same goes for "nosotros", this form typically ends in "-mos" (more specifically -amos, -emos, or -imos, depending on the verb), which is why we can tell "bebemos" is "we drink" even without including the "nosotros". Here's a link that might help you with Spanish conjugation: http://www.studyspanish.com/verbs/lessons/pireg.htm
In English, at least in the U.S., "We don't drink during lunch" would be an implied reference to alcohol; i.e. "We don't drink alcohol during lunch." Is this true in Spanish too? In most or all countries? In my experience, it is very uncommon ever to eat without drinking at least a bit of water.
During vs. while
Why is "we do not drink during the lunch" wrong? The speaker could be referring to a specific lunch.
So how would you say" we do not drink during the lunch"? if my answer was incorrect.
"We do not drink" is correct, but "we are not drinking" is not? Both are present tense.
"We do not drink" and "we are not drinking" are two different things in the sense that:
- "We do not drink" is stating that we don't ever drink during lunch.
- "We are not drinking" is stating that we aren't drinking at this very moment.
Hope this helps!
I understand the distinction. I just don't see how you can tell which one applies here, when it is possible to say, "we are not drinking during lunch", and not just, "we are not drinking at this very moment." I guess the Spanish don't say the former, without "estamos bebiendo", and I am applying English rules where I shouldn't be??
In this case the traduction is literal from Spanish to English. When we talk about facts we use present tense, so to differentiate them we must use progressive present whenwe are talking about we are doing in the moment.
- Yo no bebo durante el almuerzo: It is a fact, something that happens always
- Yo no estoy bebiendo durante el almuerzo: It is something that I am doing just now.
You didn't indicate who is refraining from drinking. Also, -ing verbs have a different ending, so this should be translated as simple present tense: drink (bebo, bebes, bebe, bebemos, beben).
Help with "al" verses "el". When do you know when to use "al almuerzo" and "el almuerzo" like this time it was "no bebemos durante el almuerzo" but in another sentence it was "ella va al almuerzo"
"Al" is the contraction of "a+el". You must use always the contraction, it is not correct to use "a el". except if "el" is part of the name, for example there is a town in Spain called "El Ejido","El" is part of the name, that is the only case that contraction is not used
- I go to El Ejido: Voy a El Ejido
- I go to the country: Voy al campo
Pronoum "él" can't be contracted at all, only the article "el" can.
how come when i answered 'lunch' in 'almuerzo' it was considered wrong and the right answer is 'meal', and when i answered 'meal' it was considered wrong and lunch is the right answer. How come?
I am so confused. My answer was "we do not drink during lunch." It marks me wrong and says, "the correct answer is we do not drink during lunch" what did i do wrong
I don't know what you did wrong. The answer you wrote is the answer I see above.
WHY does her voice sound like "Veve" instead of "Bebe"...???? Even the V in spanish sounds like B
Both B and V have the same sound, but the sound depends on accent. In some accents, it's like B, in others it's like V, but made with both lips. Sometimes, this V-sound is almost unaudible for the beginners.
For more details, see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spanish_phonology and http://www.uiowa.edu/~acadtech/phonetics/spanish/spanish.html .
Because when you say it like that it sounds like a command, which is conjugated different in Spanish. The command form of "beber" for 'we' is "bebamos". http://www.studyspanish.com/lessons/noscomm.htm When it's in the present tense "bebemos" like it is above, it's just a general statement that's being made (We don't drink during lunch), it's not telling someone not to drink during lunch.
How is "Do not drink during lunch" wrong? How do you know when to add words that aren't there?
It's wrong because you forgot to include the "we". no bebemos durante el almuerzo=we do not drink during lunch. If you leave the "we" off, then it sounds like a command, which you would have to translate differently in Spanish.
Thanks for the reply, but how are you supposed to know when to add words like that. It seems that Duo does that quite a bit
You mean the subject pronoun? (I, you, we, he, she, they). We can tell because the verb changes for every subject in Spanish. In English, we always state the subject because you can't tell based solely on the verb. For example if I just say "ate" you wouldn't know who ate unless you said I/he/she/we/they ate.
In Spanish though, the ending of the verb can tell you who the verb is referring to:
bebE=he/she/you (formal) drink
In this case, the subject being referred to is "we", which in the Spanish present tense ends in "-mos" (more specifically, -amos/-emos/-imos). Looking at the verb you see that it is "bebemos", it ends in -emos, so we know that the verb is referring to "we (nosotros)", therefore "bebemos"=we drink. You could say "nosotros bebemos" which would literally translate to "we drink", but you don't need the "nosotros" because you can tell by looking at the verb's ending (-emos).
These links should help you with Spanish conjugations, look for the pattern, it helps you tell who the verb is referring to.
So how do you know when to say the lunch vs lunch? Like, how do you know when el/la is supposed to be "the"?
el almuerzo is THE LUNCH You are being picky, almost spiteful, in order to find problems with the student's answers. More of these, and I will forget about using DuoLingo.