We do say "Whose are these cups?" as well as "Whose cups are these?" in English
"Who do these cups belong to?" is wrong. Thanks for correcting my English, Duolingo. :-/
I said mugs and it said it was incorrect
Am I wrong?
Same for me, I think it should be accepted.
"Who owns these cups?" ?
"Qui possède ces tasses".
petite question. why "to whom are these cups" is wrong. thanks
would "Who owns these cups?" be acceptable translation?
'Whom cups are these?' isn't considered correct.. I'm a native Dutch speaker, so please correct me. :)
"Whom" is the form of the pronoun "who" used with prepositions (or archaicly as the object of the verb). E.g. "To whom am I speaking". "Whose" is the form to show possession. E.g "Whose cups are these".
"Whom do these cups belong to?" is also proper English.
It's just the word order that isn't correct in English.
I put: These cups are for whom?
I believe that would be, "Ces tasses sont pour qui?"
It actually is, you can use one of the following sentences : Whose are these/those cups? or whose cups are these/those?
Is 'mug' an acceptable translation for 'tasse'?
I know in Spanish 'mug' is 'taza', so I thought it might be the same in French...
I have always understood accents are omitted from upper case/capital letters, but I have just been warned to watch my accents when I did this...
What cups? I don't see any cups.