"Il mange du riz."

Translation:He eats rice.

January 7, 2013

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In French "it" has no other translation than [cela/ceci] or [ça/c'] (more used). Ex : "Ça fait mal !" / "It hurts !". "C'est trop dur !" / "It's too hard !".

Please note that it's the same translation for "this/that".

In English, animals and babies are designated by "it". It's not the case in French, they all have a gender, so for those, you have to use either "il" or "elle", and certainly not "ça" or "c' ". I'm being specific on this one because it could be considered as very rude to do so.


He eats rice vs he is eating rice? I put both in and they are both correct any explanations?


The "présent de l'indicatif" (or simply "présent") in French is used both for "simple present" and "present progressive" in English.


Both of them give the same meaning. Not a big deal. Both are correct


simple present tense and continuous tense are the same in French


If it is another translation of Il, then shouldn't "It eats rice" be accepted as well? Seriously, give me my heart back.


Il means (he)and (it) but you have to choose the one that makes more sense .


What's the difference between "de" and "du"?


You might need to do some research on articles and prepositions.

Here is a link to start :



de la to say "some" for female nouns. De le is contracted to du to say "some" for male nouns


I thought du was the so il mange du riz would be he is eating the rice.


Why isnt he eating some rice? A different question marked me wrong for the same sentence because i did not add "some"


Why would it not be: "He is eating some of the rice."?


enunciate please


This is how the french speak! Words are jammed together. Even if your pronunciation is perfect, a dead giveaway that you are a foreigner is if you separate your words!


So from the sound ... how can you tell it's singular and not plural? I assumed it was "they are eating rice".


You can't. Both answers are acceptable if you have to answer by ear.


I just typed "Ils man gent du riz" and it was accepted, but correct answer is "Il mange du riz". Could it be because, it is difficult to distinguish by pronunciation "Ils man gent" and "Il mange"?


"Ils man gent du riz" shouldn't be accepted.

The two correct sentences are :

  • "Il mange du riz"
  • "Ils mangent du riz"

And you're right, there is absolutely no difference in pronunciation between those two sentences, that's why both are correct (but only for the oral exercise of course).

[deactivated user]

    When talking about food or drink in french do you say 'some' before the food or drink par example, " Je bois de l'eau," or, "Il mange du riz."


    What is your tongue supposed to do when pronouncing the R's? I'm confused!


    Isn't du= de le .. and le means " the " .. why " he is eating the rice " is wrong? ?


    "Ils mangent du riz. " is also accepted as a response since there is no discernable difference between the two responses.

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