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  5. "El dueño me ha llamado."

"El dueño me ha llamado."

Translation:The owner has called me.

November 19, 2013



Creo que no has pagado la renta. :-p


Would someone be able to explain to me when you would use "el dueño me ha llamado" versus "el dueño me llamó"?


In general, the present perfect (me ha llamado) implies something ongoing or unresolved: "The owner has called me to his office." The preterite (me llamó) implies a completed or self-contained activity: "The owner called me and left a message."

But there is some overlap: in casual conversation, "I ate" (Yo comí) means almost the same thing as "I have eaten" (Yo he comido).

Hope this helps.


Gracias, that explanation was very helpful. The more practice I've had with haber the more it's starting to make sense too :)


Mi placer. The hardest part of dealing with haber is simply remembering to mentally separate "have" the auxiliary (helping) verb from "have" the transitive verb (tener) which is something English doesn't normally do.


In Spanish from Spain, there generally use the present perfect for events that occurred recently ... that same day or that morning or afternoon. Spanish from Latin America is much more likely to use the preterite in exactly the same situation.

This is particularly true in Spain if the sentence includes "esta" as in esta mañana, or even "esta semana.

If something happened yesterday, in more cases the preterite is used no matter what version of Spanish is spoken.


Haha. I confused dueño with sueño and thought Duo was being very poetic!


I was thinking dream too. I didn't put dream though.


Me too! I wrote : "He dreamed he has called me." Haha


Can dueno also mean boss?


boss usually = jefe Of course, the owner can also be the boss, but often is simply the landlord


What is wrong with "the owner called me"


Missing the auxiliary verb.


In both Italian and French, it accepts the English simple past as well as the compound past as a correct translation. I don't know why it doesn't in Spanish. I was told by a moderator that, when in doubt, report it. So, I'll report it and see what happens. :)


Don't make more work for the devs just because a different language does something. Research the causes in Spanish. If there's a good reason for it, then report it.

In this case, it is not simply interchangeable, and shouldn't be reported as such. Past perfect and similar grammar are used to convey when things happened on a timeline in a relatively small amount of words.

Think of this exercise's sentence as happening in the middle of a conversation, where something happened, and we respond with something that happened - the owner called - earlier. We could say "The owner called me earlier, before that other thing you were talking about happened," but it is much simpler (once we understand the grammar) to just say "The owner has called me."

Preterite in Spanish
Past Perfect in Spanish


i don't understand why the sentence has to have "has called" when the has is implied in English.... The owner called me. = The owner Has called me. the comments already say the auxiliary verb is needed ... maybe in Spanish, but not in English ...

It is those differences in language that are important to learn .... not speaking funny in English to get the answer right.


The English sentence may not be used often, but it is important to understand the correct grammar translation. There is a difference between the sentences you used as examples. http://grammar.about.com/od/basicsentencegrammar/a/prperfectense.htm


thank you! ... yes, I can see/ hear the difference now.


the tooltip said 'called me out' which is incorrect when used


How would you say "to call out" in the sense of calling someone's bluff?


Same here i answered that, i will report it


Why not The owner called me?


This is a past tense sentence. But in the answer "has" is present tense while "called" is past tense. It should be, "The owner had called me".


This sentence is present perfect. Even though the auxiliary verb is in a present tense, perfect sentences generally refer to something that happened before the reference time, while the action still has an impact on the reference time.

Example: "Have you eaten yet?" - Asking whether you ate recently and if the satisified feeling of a full belly still applies to you.

"The owner had called me" is past perfect, referring to an action that happened before an action in the past. Example: "I wanted to order pizza like every Tuesday, but then I remembered that the place's owner had called me the day before to let me know that their oven is broken."


I'm not sure about the Spanish, but in French, which is a language from the same group, the equivalent form "a appelé" is called passé composé and may refer to either an action from the passed period, in which case it is equivalent to the Present Simple ("called"), or to an action that has taken place before the moment of speaking no matter when, in which case it is equivalent to the Present Perfect tense ("has called"). So, if that is also the case with Spanish, both translations are possible; the choice depends on the context.


How would one say, has me called vs has called me?


"Has me called" is not correct in English. I'm not certain in Spanish.


It could be correct as in " the owner has me called to remind me 3 days before the rent is due."


My Spanish is not good enough to answer that, but it is a legitimate statement in the sense of "The owner has someone call me on his behalf."


I thought this was saying the owner has summoned me. Sorta like a landlord/tenant sentence


How would someone say "the boss had called me?" I thought this could have been another translation of this but then again I am not fluent in Spanish.


El jefe = The boss...unless female; then it's La jefa = The boss.


Besides dueño not being "boss", there's another problem with your sentence: you used the past perfect tense. "Ha llamado" is present perfect, though.

Your sentence would be translated as "El jefe me había llamado."


"The host has called me" was rejected. Can "dueno" be translated as "host" (the owner of the house where I am a guest)?


Not generally, without more context. Host would be anfitrión, hostelero, mesonero, etc.

El dueño es también el anfitrión. Me ha llamado.



  • 1360

Can dueño also be used to imply the owner of an item, for example a car or a computer?


What's the difference between me & mi?


Me is an object pronoun.

Mi is a possessive adjective. "mi casa" - my house


I put master and it was wrong. My immediate thought: "The Duolingo message boards will be hearing about this."


"El dueño" was translated "boss" by duolingo in a previous exercise."


Sounds like "jamado"


Marked wrong for boss ?


Owner == dueño

Boss == jefe

They can be the same, but we do not have the context here to know that.

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