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  5. "Lo tengo todo bajo control."

"Lo tengo todo bajo control."

Translation:I have everything under control.

November 21, 2013



Why is "lo" needed here"? Can I just say "Tengo todo bajo control"?


Lo is there to provide emphasis, since the word "everything" can be sort of generic and not very direct.

I have it (it being everthing) under control.


I translated it to mean "I have it all under control." Without the "lo," it would just say "I have all under control."


I would say I have everything under control but I have all under control just sounds weird


"todo" also means "everything"; for example, you could say "perdió todo", and in context, "todo" would not necessarily have to be translated literally as "all" but would be understood to mean "everything". Hope this helps :)


Yes, but "I have it all under control." is also an accepted answer.


"perdió todo" no necesita "lo"?


Si puedes hacerlo ambos son correctas


I'd like to know as well. Any input from a native speaker?


Yes, you can say "Tengo todo bajo control".


my best guess is that both are acceptable...


Both are accepted 2/Mar/2014


Why not I have it all under control?


I just used that answer "I have it all under control" (Feb 2014) and it was accepted.


The Spanish syntax really doesn't matter here. If "I have everything under control" is a correct English solution, then so is "I have it all under control" correct. The two are synonymous because "it all" and "everything" are synonymous.


I think there can be a meaning difference between "I have everything under control" and "I have it all under control." The first is potentially broader.


Hmmm. Well, I don't know. What is there beyond "everything"? What is there beyond "it all'?" Or "all of it?"


I had been thinking of a possibility where "it" is used as a referential pronoun, and more specifically where it refers to some subset of a larger entity--in that case, having "all of it" or "it all" under control would be referring to the subset, and not to the whole. But granted that in actual usage, as an answer to a specific question, the question would likely clarify what is being asked about (i.e. whether it's the subset or the whole), and so in that case, either answering with "everything" or "it all / all of it" would be the same meaning.


yet...................................... "everything" could also be a subset pertaining to a previously mentioned context.


But "all of (set of entities)" would more likely be used than "every___" for referring to a subset: after all, "everything" does not specify the restriction (other than whether is a "thing," person ("body"), place ("where")), but "all of (set of entities)" does specify it. E.g. "Did your classmates come to your wedding?" answered with "Yes, in fact all of them were able to make it." would refer only to "your classmates" coming, whereas answering with "Yes, in fact everybody was able to make it" would, with stress on "everybody," possibly refer to a superset of entities.


That's what I thought at first, but now I'm thinking the 'lo' is tied to/references 'todo' so saying "it all" would be redundant. Kind of like 'le' is tied to 'a él' in "le das a él la comida." But I'm not sure about this... Anyone know for sure?


I still think "it all" is best. saying "I have all under control' sounds like archaic english to me. it all may be redundant, but it sounds right to a native speaker.


I'm surprised that that wasn't accepted. Did you report it?


Yo no sabía que "under control" también es una idioma en español!


Is it? I'd like to see a native speaker chime in as to whether this is an appropriate phrase in Spanish.


I think the expression is very simple and clear:

You have a break down in your car, a tyre puncture.

Someone stops and ask you:

  • ¿Puedo ayudarte? (Can I help you?)
  • No, gracias, lo tengo todo bajo control.

You have controlled the situation, you know what to do, you have all needed tools, and this isn't the first time you do it. You know very well how to it.


Do native speakers really say it like that?


I'm wondering, is this expression used in Spanish or is it just a literal translation from the English expression


I came here wondering this too. Would love to have a real answer.


Is this the "famous last words" lesson?


Ha! Like some say in the South (USA), "Hey, y'all, watch THIS! (E-e-e-e-yah-h-h! - (THUMP!) ;<)


Uh, yeah,... or just as likely, "Hey, buddy, hold my beer and watch this..."


I am not clear as the breadth of the Spanish phrase. Can it mean "I have everything under control" (the given proper answer) , and also "I have it under total control"?


I don't know why this was voted down. I have the same question. How would one say "I have it totally under control"?


Maybe this: yo lo tengo totalmente bajo control


O better: ¡Lo tengo totalmente controlado! ;-)


That sounds reasonable. Thanks.


i gave the same answer, and think it would be accepted in everyday speaking


How would you say "I have total control?"


I have= tengo

total control= control total


one of the correct answers is....I have all under control. that makes no sense.


No, not "I have all under control." but "I have it all under control."


How would you say 'I have everybody under control'? Would 'Lo tengo todo el mundo bajo control' be right?


Tengo a todos bajo control or perhaps... Tengo a todo el mundo bajo control. Though it sounds like all the world to me... :)


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That's what they all say


can somebody explain what the differences are between "bajo" and "debajo de" ?


According to Google Translate: 'Bajo' can be used as an adjective, (e.g., low, lower, short), an adverb, (e.g., low, down, below, lower), a preposition, (e.g., under, underneath, beneath); or a noun (e.g., depth, bottom), whereas 'debajo de' is a preposition and means "underneath, beneath, or below". (These lists are not all-inclusive.)

I am a native English speaker, but I believe the most frequent usages of 'bajo' are as an adjective and 'debajo de' as the preposition. Examples that come to mind: La mesa es baja (the table is low/short); el gato esta debajo de la mesa (the cat is underneath the table). Note that 'debajo de' does not change with gender, but 'bajo' does.


How would you say "I have him all under control" ? (speaking perhaps of a bad dog, or saying something humorous about someone who is not in agreement with what is happening)


Would "todo lo tengo bajo control" work too?


Apparently the correct answer is 'I've all under control" ok duolingo


The correct answer is 'I have it all under control' or 'I have everything under control'.


In this section we have "Ellos han utilizado todo" (They have used everything) and "Lo tengo todo bajo control" (They have everything under contro). Why is "lo" required in the latter and not in the former?


every thing is under my control or everything is under cotrol


The speaker distinctly said "lo" instead of yo. You need to correct his pronunciation.


Yes, but what is there to correct? "LO tengo todo bajo control" would be to say "I have IT all under control,." which might otherwise be said as "I have everything under control." Same thing.


I have it totally. ...should work as well...but it doesn't


When to use lo tengo and lo he? Is there a difference?


Yes, there is a difference. Except in some archaic forms and idioms, verbs derived from haber are not used in the sense of showing possession, but act as auxiliaries in the formation of compound tenses such as the present perfect and past perfect, as well as providing the impersonal hay and habia (there is, there are, there were, etc. )

There is also a usage for showing obligation similar to "tener que" ( He de irme = I have to go) and probability (Mis llaves han de estar aqui =My keys have to be here) others, but I don't believe haber derivatives apply in this case. .



Pero, El mundo es fuera de control de tus manos seis años después. Qué mintiera es! Lol.

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