What is wrong with: I do not have a bread knife
So, is "bread knife" a commonly-used phrase in Russian (with bread being an adjective of sorts), or do they think of it as "a knife for bread," as stated? If we can use "bread knife", what would the cases then be?
I'm afraid you're asking the wrong man here, I'm not sure
it is accepted when you translate to english, when speaking russian you should just stick with the original phrase)
Is хлеб also conjugated into genitive?
Yes, "для" requires genitive.
Ah, I was confused with для and genitive negation. Because it is для that makes хлеб genitive, if this is an affirmative sentence ножа becomes нож while хлеб keeps хлеба, right?
Right! У меня есть нож для хлеба - У меня нет ножа для хлеба.
Thanks for the clarification!
But why? I would think this calls for dative, as the bread is an indirect object - "for the bread".
That's just the case that the preposition requires.
So, each preposition requires a specific case for the noun it modifies, regardless of that noun's position or use in the sentence - ? If so I could understand this as German has similar rules.
Basically yes, and the preposition is almost always going to precede the noun it modifies, with the exception of certain idiomatic expressions.
Declined :). Yes, «для» is used with the Genitive, same as an impessive number of other prepositions.
In this case "есть" is left out it seems. Why is it so?
You never say "есть" if you don't have something. You replace it with "нет" and change the word to genitive. У меня есть нож - У меня нет ножа.
What if we are talking about a particular knife? Is “I don‘t have the knife for the bread” still wrong?