Why is "I have the apples" wrong for "У меня есть яблоки", if Russian has no articles?
Are different constructions used for definite/indefinite possession, as in Turkish? (Elmalar bende = the apples are at me = I have the apples vs. Benim elmalarım var = my apples exist = I have apples.)
No, у does not mean "I".
But Russian doesn't use a verb for "to have"; instead, they say something like (literally) "at me there is an apple" rather than "I have an apple".
So "I have", as an entire phrase, would be translated by у меня есть -- but it's best to translate those as whole phrases. You can't break them apart and say that one of those words means "I" and one of them means "have".
Thank you, this helps a lot. I have another question though, sometimes it will say "I have a child" and sometimes it will say "We have a Child" While using the Russian "Y." How do you know when it is pertaining to we and when it just means I?
Impressive Streak by the way :)