30 Comments
Yes, in this particular case. In principle, the accusative form is exactly the same here. But be careful: there are two forms of this word (in both cases): "неё" and "её". In all instances I can think of right now you would use "неё" whenever these cases (genetive or accusative) follow prepositions.
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What is the difference between "does she have" and "she has"? I cant find a differencw between those two sentences.
Just the question mark, the context and the emphasis of whoever is speaking... I believe
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Hope this means I'm starting to get a handle on some Russian pronunciation, but I'm hearing the д at the end of велосипед pronounced with a "t" sound which also occurs in мёд and город too so I believe I'm hearing this correctly.
Yes. That's a general pattern: at the end of words (but not exclusively!) consonants become unvoiced. Hence д→т, б→п, в→ф, г→к, з→с, ж→ш.
However, they become voiced when followed by a vowel, so you will hear a clear "д" sound in e.g. "У неё нет велосипеда".
Isnt it because of letter before it? At least thats how it is in czech and slovak
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Is there a different word for "bike" as a reason for getting that wrong?
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I said "She has a bike" but DL said I was wrong and corrected it to "She's a bike"... Um okay.
Most likely you've made a typo somewhere. Once DL thinks you are wrong, it tries to "recover", and the version it offers may not always match the one you had in mind. Nor it is always grammatical, like in this case: DL has probably a hard-coded rule that "she's" is an acceptable short-hand for "she has" (which it is in expressions like "she's got...", but not here), and then it suggests it even when it's wrong.
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I have written 'she has a bicycle' several times and I am marked wrong. How do I signal this or am I missing something
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Why is it not "Он or Она" if its he or she, why change to "У него or У нее". Is it because "y" is about possessing something?
Russian has a peculiar way of expressing possession, which I already described earlier in this thread -- please read the entire thread before posting duplicate questions. In any case, I am quoting myself:
The Russian way of saying "A has B" is "У A (genitive) есть B (nominative)" which literally translates into "B is by/with A".
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How come 'Y' is both They and She? ('She' in this question, 'They' in the previous I got)
"У" is neither "they" nor "she". It's a preposition meaning "by" or "with".
The Russian way of saying "A has B" is "У A (genitive) есть B (nominative)" which literally translates into "B is by/with A".
У неё ести велосиред is translated as she's a bike.. really?? She is a bike?:))
From what i understand, it doesnt make Y Anything. There's someone in the thread above who describes it fairly well
"У" is a preposition which closely resembles English "by" as in "by my side" (and even closer resembles German "bei", if that's of any help). So "У неё (есть) X"≈"By her side is X", which is how possession is usually expressed in Russian.
