No, that would be «У мужчи́н есть хле́б». «Мужчи́ны» can be either nominative plural or genitive singular, but after «у» we use the genitive case, not nominative.
I'm confused! I thought ы was the ending for singular feminine genitive and that singular masculine uses а or я
Мужчи́на is declined like feminine nouns (but it's used with masculine adjective and verb forms). Other words that behave like this include па́па 'dad', Ди́ма 'Dima'.
Ok. So the noun itself is declined as feminine but because the word itself refers to a male, adjectives describing this feminine noun are declined as masculine. Tricky! Thank you
In Italian, some male names, and jobs that uses to be traditionally held by men, end in "a" and behave gramatically like feminine words. It's a remnant from Latin.
Мужчи́на ест хлеб?
why does est' and est sound exactly the same. How can you differentiate between does the man have bread and does the man eat bread by sound?
it’s a very soft almost “ee” sound at the end of the word, hence the “soft sign” name. ест has a hard t, like in east, and есть sounds approximately like yes-ti
You have to learn to pronounce the ь or any soft sound by putting the back of your tongue against the ceiling of your mouth. It gets easier with time, it makes a difference for ш/щ, т/ть...
Why is "khleb" not accepted as the transliteration of хлеб? Edit: Nevermind. For some reason it highlighted the "х" in хлеб when I was missing an apostrophe after "est".
Hello, why isn't bread written here as хлеба as it is enquiring about possession and it takes the genitive form?
Enquiring about possession doesn't require genitive form, maybe you've misunderstood something?
Generally, the forms used in questions are the same as in statements. So, if you make «У мужчины есть хлеб» 'The man has bread' into a question, it will be «У мужчины есть хлеб?» 'Does a man have bread' (or «Есть ли у мужчины хлеб?», which means the same). Since the statement has nominative case, the question also has it.
If you wanted to transform a negative statement into a question, you'd use genitive. Negative statement is «У мужчины нет хлеба» 'The man doesn't have bread', the question is «У мужчины нет хлеба?» 'Doesn't the man have bread?' (or «Нет ли у мужчины хлеба?», which means the same).
Thank you! But I thought when someone says it is the man has bread, or Adam has a dog, it becomes genitive? у адам есть собака becomes адама собаки?
No, genitive is a different way of indicating possession. «У Ада́ма есть соба́ка» means 'Adam has a dog', «соба́ка Ада́ма» means 'Adam's dog'.
I am too confused the way duolingo accepts has and have.. can anyone help me out?
Because when you have an inversion in a question, it's "does the man have bread" not "does the man has bread".
Here you want "has got" and it was rejected in the previous sentence ( the woman has already an apple) Can we understand why?
Because "bread" is not countable by itself, so you can't say "a bread", you'd have to say "a loaf/slice/piece of bread". In this case, we don't know how much bread he has, so it's just "bread".