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  5. "У мужчины есть хлеб?"

"У мужчины есть хлеб?"

Translation:Does the man have bread?

November 10, 2015

32 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/OhadLutzky

Could this be considered plural? ("Do the men have bread?")


[deactivated user]

    No, that would be «У мужчи́н есть хле́б». «Мужчи́ны» can be either nominative plural or genitive singular, but after «у» we use the genitive case, not nominative.


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/helmi23

    I'm confused! I thought ы was the ending for singular feminine genitive and that singular masculine uses а or я


    [deactivated user]

      Мужчи́на is declined like feminine nouns (but it's used with masculine adjective and verb forms). Other words that behave like this include па́па 'dad', Ди́ма 'Dima'.


      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/helmi23

      Ok. So the noun itself is declined as feminine but because the word itself refers to a male, adjectives describing this feminine noun are declined as masculine. Tricky! Thank you


      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/GeorgianaTanasa

      In Italian, some male names, and jobs that uses to be traditionally held by men, end in "a" and behave gramatically like feminine words. It's a remnant from Latin.


      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/gusmcclain

      How do you say 'Does the man eat bread?'


      [deactivated user]

        Мужчи́на ест хлеб?


        https://www.duolingo.com/profile/7otineb3

        why does est' and est sound exactly the same. How can you differentiate between does the man have bread and does the man eat bread by sound?


        https://www.duolingo.com/profile/miley69

        it’s a very soft almost “ee” sound at the end of the word, hence the “soft sign” name. ест has a hard t, like in east, and есть sounds approximately like yes-ti


        https://www.duolingo.com/profile/7U6v2

        You have to learn to pronounce the ь or any soft sound by putting the back of your tongue against the ceiling of your mouth. It gets easier with time, it makes a difference for ш/щ, т/ть...


        https://www.duolingo.com/profile/KUUAxAwy

        The voice sounds more like a statement than a question. Is this the case in everyday life?


        https://www.duolingo.com/profile/ArnobHaque

        Why is "khleb" not accepted as the transliteration of хлеб? Edit: Nevermind. For some reason it highlighted the "х" in хлеб when I was missing an apostrophe after "est".


        https://www.duolingo.com/profile/flint72

        So to translate this more directly, would it be

        "The bread is of the man" ?


        https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Norrius

        No, rather “is there bread by the man?”.


        https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Chancegardener

        Shouldn´t "The man has bread?" be accepted?


        https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Madame-patate

        Nope cause it has to be a question


        https://www.duolingo.com/profile/kdammers

        With the machine speaking, I can't hear the question intonation.


        https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Russo_learn

        Hello, why isn't bread written here as хлеба as it is enquiring about possession and it takes the genitive form?


        [deactivated user]

          Enquiring about possession doesn't require genitive form, maybe you've misunderstood something?

          Generally, the forms used in questions are the same as in statements. So, if you make «У мужчины есть хлеб» 'The man has bread' into a question, it will be «У мужчины есть хлеб?» 'Does a man have bread' (or «Есть ли у мужчины хлеб?», which means the same). Since the statement has nominative case, the question also has it.

          If you wanted to transform a negative statement into a question, you'd use genitive. Negative statement is «У мужчины нет хлеба» 'The man doesn't have bread', the question is «У мужчины нет хлеба?» 'Doesn't the man have bread?' (or «Нет ли у мужчины хлеба?», which means the same).


          https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Russo_learn

          Thank you! But I thought when someone says it is the man has bread, or Adam has a dog, it becomes genitive? у адам есть собака becomes адама собаки?


          [deactivated user]

            No, genitive is a different way of indicating possession. «У Ада́ма есть соба́ка» means 'Adam has a dog', «соба́ка Ада́ма» means 'Adam's dog'.


            https://www.duolingo.com/profile/hsb878939

            Has instead of have?


            https://www.duolingo.com/profile/hsb878939

            The only accordance with have is with men not man


            https://www.duolingo.com/profile/websmasha

            WHY are we using plural form?


            https://www.duolingo.com/profile/sasha574859

            muzhchiny is a plural?! it's not man it's men


            https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Manoj445029

            I am too confused the way duolingo accepts has and have.. can anyone help me out?


            https://www.duolingo.com/profile/astro_noms

            Because when you have an inversion in a question, it's "does the man have bread" not "does the man has bread".


            https://www.duolingo.com/profile/clairelanc3

            Here you want "has got" and it was rejected in the previous sentence ( the woman has already an apple) Can we understand why?


            https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Dejan3598

            Why it doesn't accept it if I put Does the man have a bread?


            https://www.duolingo.com/profile/astro_noms

            Because "bread" is not countable by itself, so you can't say "a bread", you'd have to say "a loaf/slice/piece of bread". In this case, we don't know how much bread he has, so it's just "bread".

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