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  5. "У тебя нет молока."

"У тебя нет молока."

Translation:You do not have milk.

November 11, 2015



Why is there no есть?

[deactivated user]

    Because "нет" is used instead of the non-existing form "не есть".


    To clarify the other comment, the word "нет" has more than one meaning. It does not only mean "no". It can also mean (literally) "there is no", so the phrase "у меня нет молока" translates to "with me there is no milk". Contrary to English, this is actually the more natural/prevalent word order in Russian.


    Yes, yes, Duo, I know! I was about to go out to buy молоко. No need to nag me like a hungry кошка! :)


    So is молоко in the accusative here?

    [deactivated user]

      No, it's genitive. In the construction «нет» + noun, used to express absence, we put the noun in genitive.


      Would you put the possessed noun in the genitive in a positive statement?

      [deactivated user]

        No, if I were to say you have a milk, I would say «у тебя́ е́сть молоко́» (you have milk; literally 'at you is milk') and it would be in Nominative.


        I am confused as to when to use "We" verses "You" when "у" is used. Can someone explain this?

        [deactivated user]

          У is a preposition to introduce the possessor. It's basic meaning is 'at' or 'near', but in this sentence «у тебя» could be translated 'at you possession'. I.e. «У тебя́ нет молока́» = 'At you[r possession], there-is-no milk.'

          In other contexts, «у тебя́» can mean 'at your place'. For example, «Мо́жно я переночу́ю у тебя́?» 'Is it OK if I sleep over at your place?'.

          So you get the meaning ('you', 'we' or anything else) by looking at the word following the preposition:

          • у тебя = at your possession, at your place (informal),
          • у вас = at your possession, at your place (formal or plural),
          • у нас = at our possession, at our place.


          Why is this молока instead of the plain молоко?


          "Нет" requires genitive case. Молоко changes to молока in genitive.


          Can also be said to a woman, who tries to breast feed her child


          So, when you have a phrase like this, the object is in the genetive and not the accusative?


          why is ' You don't have a milk.' not correct, what is wrong with the article, can someone recommend some links to learn more about the english articles, it seem to be a great problem for me, 90% of my wrong answers are because of articles


          "Milk" is an uncountable noun. We don't say "one milk, two milks, three milks" and we don't use the indefinite article with uncountable nouns. You could say "you don't have the milk".


          Pardon this reply being out of date.

          I just submitted "You don't have the milk" and it was not accepted.

          By "we", did you mean native English speakers? That'd be useful information. Also, I disagree with milk being uncountable. If you're in a restaurant you can order milk as a beverage and say "I'll have a milk" or "Two milks, please."

          Both of these situations may be totally different in Russian, though.


          Milk, like water, is uncountable. The instance you mentioned is an exception that doesn't really alter how the word behaves...


          He need some milk


          I'd suggest that 'You don't have any milk' also be accepted, since that's the more common way to say it. :) Thank you!


          Sorry for going into your fridge. And breaking into your house.


          When cereal has no молоко :(


          мой зерновой :(


          Haha, this reminds me of hilarious "Got Milk?" commercials. Duo gets points for this.


          I don't hear the я in тебя


          Hello. If I understand well, we can say either : - « у тебя́ не е́сть молоко́ » (nominative, sense = 'I don't have') or - « у тебя́ нет молока́ » (genitive, sense = 'I have no') ?

          [deactivated user]

            No, we never say «не есть».


            I put "You do no have milk" by accident, I knew it was wrong but it still accepted it...?


            Why "you have not milk" is not correct?


            That's not proper grammar.


            The inverted negative ("you have not", for example), was once the norm in the English language for all verbs but has long been archaic to the point of sounding incorrect to most English-speaking ears. Now we always place "do" as a dummy verb in its place, with the bare infinitive. As a result, "do" is virtually the only verb you place before "not" when forming a negative. (There are some poetic, ironic and literary exceptions, but they are special cases.)

            "I have not" - "I do not" + "have"


            "You haven't any milk" should be an acceptable translation

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