"I want my mother to come."
Translation:Annemin gelmesini istiyorum.
In this case as there is no word between the two verbs why can one not say "Annem gelmek isityorum?
This is my question too.
Otherwise, could you leave the accusative:
Annemin gelmesi istiyorum. (?)
I am learning too, but in my opinion this will not be possible. I remember that anybody explained that in the Turkish language you cannot use nor the infinitive nor the subjunctive if the subject doing the action (annem) and the actual subject (ben) are different. And then "annemin gelmesini" have to be in accusative as it is a specific direct object. May anybody correct me if I am wrong.
I get it. I really appreciate your answer. I'll practice : senin buraya orturmani istiyorum " olur mu? I want you to sit here. Is it the "buraya " correct though?
as I already asked above in this case I have the same question, please: why do you need the accusative case here as the gerund / infinitive is put directly in front of the conjugated verb and on the other hand 'istemek' does not always require the accusative case.
Thanks a lot!
- gel- = stem: "come"
- gelmek = infinitive: "to come"
- gelme = participle: "(an act of) coming"
- gelmesi = the same, with a possessive ending -si: "her (act of) coming"
- gelmesini = the same, with accusative ending -i (and buffer consonant -n- before it): "her (act) of coming (in accusative)"
Remember that if you have a noun with a third person singular possessive ending (-i or -si), you add a buffer consonant -n- before most case endings.
So "gelmesini" is "gel-me-si-n-i".
So, is the accusative suffix mandatory? In other words, does sevmek always take an object in accusative case?
No; this -me- is part of the participle, not the negative suffix.
You could even have both: gelmemesini "her (act) of not coming".