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"My brother had earned more than my father."

Translation:Mi hermano había ganado más que mi padre.

0
4 years ago

17 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/chasethemoon

In the previous discussion 'she had earned...' it was said that 'to earn' is reflexive 'ganarse', 'se habia ganado'. surely this should be too then? .... mi hermano se habia ganado mas...? No? bit confused

12
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Babella

It is reflexive sometimes, in this case (ganar - earn as in talking about an income) it is not. It is reflexive (ganarse) if the sentence implies someone had made a big effort and deserves something: se ha ganado su cariño {- that person has worked hard and so deserves their love?

I know it is not that clear, but I cannot come up with a better explanation, sorry.

9
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/catchingsignals
catchingsignals
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It seems quite similar to when we say in English, "she has earned herself <something>": "ella se ha ganado <algo>"?

5
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Babella

Yes, I guess that is! :]

3
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/neeleshh
neeleshh
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I too wrote "She had earned herself <something>" just to see if i was correct but i wasn't.

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Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/GeorgeT
GeorgeT
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So ... what would " Mi hermano SE había ganado más que mi padre" mean, if anything? I also had thought, based on what we had seen so far, that would would be OK here.

2
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/joehhendrickson

So either is ok: it is a matter of whether you want to emphasis the subject's effort or not. Is that right?

1
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/gernt
gernt
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Caí en la misma trampa. Gracias por la explicación.

1
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/tessbee
tessbee
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Ah! It's like When someone "deserved" earning something after having worked for it; having taken an effort to gain it. Like, "earning" someone's trust is ganarse?

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Reply2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/RyanKnows

ok, so ganado can mean earned or won. Is context the only way to tell the difference?? I don't see how these words can mean the same thing when they are certainly close in meaning but still mean distinctly different things.

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Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/speightman

why no personal A for mi padre? eg "a mi padre" rather than "mi padre"

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Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/gernt
gernt
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Because padre is not the object. See: http://www.studyspanish.com/lessons/persa.htm

4
Reply13 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/hedorick

Why not habias? It is his brother?

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Reply2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/gernt
gernt
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If habías had been in place of había in the Spanish version, the English version could be: (one brother talking to another) My brother, you had earned more than my father. (In that case, the second "my" probably would have to be "our"). But in the given case, the speaker pretty much has to be talking about his brother and not talking to his brother.

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Reply12 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/hedorick

Thanks for the explanation. In my mind it was one brother to another, but I missed the "my" instead of "our".

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Reply2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/gordonjackson1

Why no personal "a" before mi padre?

0
Reply2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/gernt
gernt
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The personal "a" comes before a direct object and here, "padre" is not an object of the verb. The object is understood to be money. (But that's just a rule. In conversation, this kind of sentence has to have been practiced until it just pops out because there is no time to remember a rule).

1
Reply2 years ago