"Ich danke dem Mann."

Translation: I thank the man.

[JupiterAdept]

Why is this not an accusative case? If it were "Ich esse den Mann" (cannibal sentence, sorry), then it would've been accusative, right? Is danken an exception verb?

[wataya]

Some verbs in German imply a certain case. 'Danken' implies the dative. http://german.about.com/library/verbs/blverb_dativ.htm

[artoria]

Thanks for the link to dative verbs, that really helps!!

[ikaul]

Thanks for your help! The DuoLingo tips section said "Ich danke ihr" is correct instead of "ich danke sie," but did a terrible job explaining--it didn't even say that "danken" implies dative. Thank you!

[KingPlutoIX]

I think it's because you "give" thanks to the man. To thank the man would mean you do something to him, whereas giving thanks to the man makes it dative.

[Julika]

Because the German verb is "jemandem danken", and it requires the dative object.
So it would be best to memorize verbs and the case of its object.

[danapplegate]

Would be helpful to think of the translation of "danken" as "to give thanks to," which would suggest that the person you thank is actually the indirect object?

[Duomail]

How do you say "I thank that man" ?

[mizinamo]

How do you say "I thank that man" ?

It would be written the same way: Ich danke dem Mann.

In pronunciation, dem would be unstressed when it means "the" but stressed when it means "that".

[NikolasV]

Why "the man" but not "that/this man"?

[mimienglis]

Because the means "der" and "that/this" means dieser. It is not a specific man in the sentence so you can't use that or this

[ddfromuk]

I say thanks to the man.

[Andrea983329]

Why is "I'm thanking the husband" wrong?

[mizinamo]

Why is "I'm thanking the husband" wrong?

Because Mann does not mean "husband" -- except in a possessive context such as mein Mann.

There is no possession involved or implied in this sentence, so Mann can only mean "man".