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  5. "Hace casi veinte años."

"Hace casi veinte años."

Translation:Almost twenty years ago.

January 10, 2013



Could someone please explain the sentence structure?


http://spanish.about.com/od/idiomsandphrases/qt/hace_ago.htm that should help explain it. It's an idiom so it doesn't make literal sense.


I disagree that it doesn't make literal sense.

"When did it happen?" "Since nearly 20 years (ago)."

It's a bit odd, but it does make sense.


"hace" is basically "ago" but with backwards syntax. Similar to saying "back nearly twenty years" in English, at least if you happen to be from a place that uses "back" the way i do...


could be a factor age too, if you lived back then


Not quite. "back twenty years" breaks down syntactically as "the-following-amount-of-time-earlier-than-now, amount-of-time" while "back then" is "indicator-that-the-following-time-is-in-the-past, point-in-time".


This is the 3rd person singular of the verb 'hacer', used impersonally (like 'hace calor') to mean 'it is' or 'it's been'. From Collins: C VERBO IMPERSONAL

1(con expresiones de tiempo atmosférico) to be  hace calor/frío it's hot/cold ...

2(con expresiones temporales) hace tres años que se fue he left three years ago, it's three years since he left  hace tres años que no lo veo I haven't seen him for three years, it's three years since I (last) saw him ...


Thank you! Now i get it


"Hace casi veinte años" in this sentence you are talking about the past, or something that happened in the past. "Hace" means "ago" ,"casi" means "almost" so the correct translation would be "Almost twenty years ago" because hace is acting like the verb in this sentence veinte años is only following hace casi


So...in this sentence the usual meaning of "hacer"- (to make, to do), changes to "ago"?


English says I did it 20 years ago but Spanish say I did it´it makes 20 years´ (since). actually makes sense if you look at it but being different (and the fact that Spanish put ´hace´ up front) it can be hard to get your head around.


It did not accept "nearly". I have no idea why.


Why could the answer not be be "it makes almost twenty years"? Sorry if this is wrong place to post but I'm really puzzled. Also, I can't scroll down on discussion pages until after I "follow" discussions with a post. So sometimes these type of questions have already been answered. Is this just a technical problem on my computer?


That is what I put, and it was accepted. The sentence "it makes almost twenty years" also helps me understand why "almost twenty years ago" is the correct interpretation, since both sentences mean essentially the same thing.


it is a correct literal translation, but it is not how it is said in English (would need ´since´on the end). Remeber that DL asks you to be correct in both languages.


In English we use "about" and "almost" interchangeably in this sense but Duolingo did not accept "about".


I am always told "there is no v sound in Spanish, b and v are the same." But this narrator really pronounces the Vs in some words. I wonder who is right?


why would close to not be correct


Because either there is some subtle difference in the meaning or it is not in the database for accepted answers. If you sat there and thought up every possible combination of how you could say the same thing there would likely be many more answers that have been missed. If you think it should be right then report it. Otherwise just learn the translation as they expect it.


What's the difference between almost and nearly? Both are suggestions in the drop-down.


In use, they are practically the same. The nuance is that "almost" suggests something like "not quite" while "nearly" suggests "close to" or "approaching." It's the same thought, but "almost" is defined in the negative and "nearly" in the positive. Honestly, these words are so close in meaning that I've never had the opportunity to think about the distinction.


Why can't you say.. about twenty years ago..?


´about ´could be more or less as long as it is close to the correct figure.

you are given ´almost´ from which we know it must be less than. Also you are translating a word which is different to the one you were asked to.


why does nearly not work?


Is there any reason why hace=make is used for ago? Is there any historical reason ? some thing like the language was developed when the people believed in the God of time like the days of the weak are named after noridean gods or the stars?


If i say ¨You were married 20 years ago¨ and you say ¨wait let me work it out. Yes it makes 20 years next Monday.¨,surely we have said the same thing about how long you have been married.


I couldn't make any sense of this at all because it was a 'listen to' version and I know how to pronounce words in Castilian Spanish. I hadn't a clue about this 'hace'. Grrr!


the response time is less than 1 second before an incorrect response pops up


Amos Diggory needs to move on


This is not proper English


I recognize that this is an idiom, but my translation "it is almost twenty years" would be perfectly understood by any English speaker. As in "It is almost twenty years that we ..."

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