"Keiner spricht."
Translation:No one speaks.
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Can someone explain why "keiner" is used as opposed to "kein" or "keine" or "keinen"?
'Keiner' is a pronoun, like 'niemand'. Both mean 'no one' or 'no body'.
'Kein' is the stem ('kein'-no). It is an adjective that undergoes declension (like any other adjective).
Hope this helps :)
my english is not good and i start to learn the german i confuse these three works keine. keinen kein can you give me short formula please!
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It looks like "kein" is taking the genitive plural form. But I still am unsure why it is taking this form.
You are mixing up ein/kein as indefinite article (in that case it would be in genitive case) with the indefinite pronoun. Remember, there has to be a subject in the sentence - the indefinite pronoun is the substitute for that. The forms of this indefinite pronoun in nominative case are keiner, keine, keines and keine. So it's nominative masculine: "Not a single dude speaks"
You can add letters to change the meanings like kein/ein for others words
A pronoun can be used in a subsequent sentence on its own if there was a previous sentence mentioning the noun.
Difference between "no one" and "nobody" by the sound of it. Functionally identical, just different words.
For the love of God fix the damned text-to-voice. I cannot tell if it's saying "Keiner" or "Keine". Same thing with anything ending in "er". It's annoying.
I feel the same way, but I wonder if the difference is really that subtle in spoken German. Anyone know?
To me it is sometimes. I have lived in bavaria for 7 months now and though its easier for me to tell the difference because I am more aware of the grammar, it still is difficult for me to tell. And you can get away with just kind of mumbling the end because they do sound very similar. Like the difference, at least for me, with lieben and leben.
It can help if you are to watch German NEWS and feel the (slight) difference between these sounds. The slight difference is that in words ending in R, that R is formed somewhere at the base of the neck and it is actually a soft echo; just like the French pronounce sometimes their R or a British the R before a final consonant.
It should be "None speaks" which is identical to No one speaks. None speak is grammatically incorrect, since None is singlular. However, Duolingo marked "None speaks" incorrect as well, even though it is correct. I have submitted a report.
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"No one talk" would be a command in English, so you would have to use a different form of "spricht" to say that.
In English you cannot say no one talk. "No one" is speaking about one person, so it is singular. It's the third person singular, like he, she and it. He talks, she talks, it talks. I talk, you talk, but he talks. Or one talks. Or no one talks. It's the same with nobody. You have to say nobody talks.
Not true. You can say: "No one talk!" It's a command to a group for everyone to shut up, like in a classroom of interrupting children.
As another said one can certainly say "No one talk" . This is often said to children in school when the teacher wants them quiet
I don't think so. That looks like you're trying to say "one doesn't speak", but that would be "Man spricht nicht."
Keiner in this case means nobody. So no talking would not work, as the correct answer is "nobody is talking"
"Nobody's talking" should be an acceptable answer here. Kinda annoying that it's not. :-(
None speak does make sense as the word "none" can take on either singular or plural meaning and the verb matches: http://data.grammarbook.com/blog/singular-vs-plural/none-were-vs-none-was/
I answered "Nobody speaking" and Duo wrote "You have a typo in your answer. Correct answer: Nobodys speaking" I am not a native speaker of English, but sorry, what is "Nobodys"???! Maybe they lost the apostrophe and it should have been "nobody's"?
It seems like somtimes keiner takes 1st person verb forms, and sometimes 3rd person. What is going on?
No one speak as a command is grammatically correct. Why was this not accepted?
