I could understand the "a mi" but mismo just seemed out of place to me and made me think the sentence was something like "I see myself the same" like you see that you haven't changed. Guess it is just something to remember. :D Thinking about it it does almost seem like "me veo" would translate to "I see me" which does seems odd to me -"I see me in the mirror" or "I see myself in the mirror"
This entire lesson is confusing to me, an English speaker, because of the seeming redundancy of pronouns. I've not encountered this before except in French where the redundancy is used specifically for emphasis, instead of the way AN ENGLISH SPEAKER would use vocal inflection for emphasis. But I don't see that Spanish is using it for the same type of emphasis.
(Yo) me veo a mí mismo
(Tú) te ves a ti mismo
(Él) se ve a sí mismo
(Ella) se ve a sí misma
(Nosotros) nos vemos a nosotros mismos
(Nosotras) nos vemos a nosotras mismas
(Vosotros) os veis a vosotros mismos
(Vosotras) os veis a vosotras mismas
(Ellos) se ven a sí mismos
(Ellas) se ven a sí mismas
I rather wonder, why this phrase is so important, that I am being asked it at least once a day, in rare cases twice a Practice session? When I check the strengths of my Words, I find there a bunch of useful words I am not asked ever.. It seems that smth is wrong with DL algorithms.