Beware that ż has a "zh" sound (as in "measure"), while ź is a palatalized form of "z".
I live in L.A. Speaking English here, the "S" in "measure" is a soft or palatalized "Ź," "meź'r," not a "Ż." In fact, I can't think of any English words at all with a true Polish Ż, or Rz, or Dż. Russian does have them, fot example. Teaching the Polish alphabet describes dź as in Jeep and dż as in Jungle, but even that's not true. The J in jungle is still palatalized. Maybe different dialects or regions of English use the hard zh sound
There is no explanation for the plural case, so with all the other cases this makes it hard to memorize the word man, because so far I saw three different spelling an don't know which one is which?
"Mężczyźni" is the plural nominative - you've got a point about explanation of cases being needed.
I know, I am kinda confused too as I try to put each word I learn on Duolingo into my little dictionary, and now it looks like I have to put the plurals as different entries from the root words now...
Ok, so I know the rules for forming plurals have not been discussed yet (and in fact I am away ahead of here and still no sign of plurals being discussed), however I am using a grammar book to try and understand declension.
So here we have nominative plural. This word although masc. declines like fem. because it ends with "a". My book says...
"Here is the short description for forming the nominative plural of nouns: Neuter nouns have -a, hard-stem masculine and feminine nouns have -y/-i, and soft-stem masculine and feminine nouns have -e. In masculine personal nouns, the stem consonant softens before -y/-i."
Swan, Oscar (2008-10-12). Polish Verbs Essentials of Grammar, Second Edition (Verbs and Essentials of Grammar Series) (Kindle Locations 536-538). McGraw-Hill Education. Kindle Edition.
So we have here a hardstem fem. (or even if its masc. the rules are the same) word, and the ending is therefore "y" or "i". BUT "-i is (ONLY) used after k and g" (ibid.)
So why do we have "i" here and not "y"? Or is this an irregular plural?
This rule applies mainly to inanimate objects, I believe. Rules of plurals differ between inanimate and animate. For example:
The plural of "Polak" is "polacy". Similarly, the plural of "kułak" is "kułacy". That's because both of those nouns refer to people.
However, the plural of an analogous word "kołpak" is "kołpaki", not "kołpacy", because it refers to an item.
(an exception is "chłopak" - both "chłopacy" and "chłopaki" are correct)
Basically, there is a lot of explaining to do. Look it up on the Internet or pick up another book :)
i suck at this language and i was happy when i actually spelt this right XD
This must be the world's most intricate word for the world's most basic concept.
The three Z's are really difficult to pronounce. And I originally speak hindi, whose alphabet has 52 symbols! Taking pointers from my wife, who is Polish... Can't speak jack with my in-laws without learning Polish.
The TTS does pronounce it a little short, especially for learners, but there is indeed an „i” at the end here in addition to the palatalized „n”. In this word specifically it isn't terribly important, but be careful when pronouncing some other words – there is a case difference between for example „solidarność” and „solidarności” and you should try to pronounce them in a distinct way.
Fine, but my question has to do with the pronunciation of Polish in general. In Czech, for instance, the I would be pronounced as a separate vowel, but as I recall, in Romanian, it sometimes simply palatalizes the final consonant, or softens it, as the Russians say. I'm just interested to know, essentially, what the final syllable is here in Polish.
In this word the final "i" palatalizes "n". It happens in Polish in general.
Three syllables. Męż-czyź-ni. The I here is two-timing, making n palatalized AND being itself. The voice is wrong here. In this case, if n was to be palatalized only, it would be spelled Mężczyźń, but this is not an existing word. And there shouldn't be any vowel between palatalized z and n.
Well, now that you mention it, I suppose what I am hearing is three syllables, but the vowel I am hearing is not after the N, but rather between the palatalized Z and the N. Just as importantly, allintolearning, how did you become level 2 in Catalan?
No, it isn't. The only palatalized ń I can think of in English is when kids tease each other "nya nya nya nya nya," "knee" is still a hard N
I say a palatalized N in words such as nuclear and new, though some dialects of English pronounce those Ns hard. The first N in words such as onion and pinion is palatalized in most dialects, though, I think. My question, however, was whether there was an actual vocalic I pronounced at the end of this word, which I simply do not hear, or whether the I indicated a palatalized N, as I believe it does in some Romanian plurals (though I will have to wait for that Duolingo course, I guess).
Very good examples! Onion and pinion. I must remember those. Yes, you're right about "new." My Canadian friends say it your way. Good call! I can't get my mouth to say nyuclear, though :-) I do hear the "ni" as a syllable here.
So far, this has been the only word in Polish with which I am having problems pronunciating....
Can somebody explain me please?
It sounds like [English spelling] "meh-oozh-'chizh-nee" The Polish Ę makes the "meh-oozh" into one syllable "meuzh," with a nasal sound in the middle of it, followed by-"`chizh-nee."
The first Polish Ż has a harder sound than the English "zh," but the second Polish Ź sounds like the S in the English words "pleasure, measure" or the G in the word "mirage"