Except when your Slavic language is Russian. Even though there is a great similarity between the words (Mezczyzna -> Мужчина), it still sounds unnatural, and this "cz" combination is confusing.
True,but Croatian is even farther apart,and i still think the vocabulary is easy to remember,more often than not you can find some sort of connection to help you memorise it,and even words that have no similar or equivalent counterpart in other Slavic languages feel more natural,that's just what i think.
In Russian it's pretty close,in Croatian it's ˝Muškarac˝,the writing system takes getting used to tho
My first language isn't Slavic and it doesn't feel like a tongue twister for me :P
the polish word for everything is a tongue twister - including my last name: kadyszewski
It's too bad Polish names aren't converted to the English alphabet like Russian names are. Yours would be Kadyshevski
Some emigrants, at least those who moved a long time ago, did convert their names. But generally this is not needed, because we already write in Latin alphabet.
Yes, and pronunciation-wise, very similar to Russian word for the same (man)
couldn't agree more. the pronounciation seemed hard at first, but the grammar!
m - as in "mom"; ę - it's a specific nasal sound: http://mowicpopolsku.com/wp-content/uploads/audio/15-e.mp3 ; ż - as "sh" in "shoes" (the pronunciation of this one depends on the word, it has a few variants); cz - as "ch" in "cherry"; y - as in "syllable"; z - as in "zoo"; n - as in "nut"; ą - another nasal sound: http://mowicpopolsku.com/wp-content/uploads/audio/3-a.mp3
Yes, because Polish cz makes a sound similar to English "ch," which can be broken down into "t" + "sh" = "tsh" = "ch"
Why does it change to instrumental case if the verb is to be? First time I see that in a language.
I don't know about Polish, but other Slavic languages also use instrumental case with "to be", but only when indicating profession, at least.
In Russian, yes, but not in the present tense because the verb есть (jest') is omitted in Russian. "I am a man." Ja mużścina. In the past and future tense, yes. Ja byl/budu mużścinoj.
It is really confusing. I can't pronounce correctly. First time I heard the Polish sound, I felt really depressed. But the pronounciation is really nice to listen but hard to pronounce.
and every single one sounds different here, because the first one is Ż, the second is part of CZ and the third one is the real Z.
Yes. Almost all Slavic languages don't have articles. They use noun determiners or context to indicate definite/indefinite nouns
Just out of curiosity - if you are to say for example: "Ona jest kobietą" or "Jestem dziewczynką" what is the purpose of "ą" being at the end? Can anyone explain the grammar side to this? I'm sorry if this is a silly question.