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  5. "Her wine is good."

"Her wine is good."

Translation:Jej wino jest dobre.

December 11, 2015



Do jej and jego further decline?


No. They are simply copies of the genitive of the respective pronouns, and similar to genitives of nouns, they do not match the possessed noun.


I thought I'd come to the comments to get some clarity... boy was I wrong... You people are practicing some black magic here in the comment section.... good riddance.


I'll try to rephrase vytah's comment. Historically there have only been possessive pronouns for the first and second person in Polish (my = mój, your = twój, our = nasz, your = wasz). Third person possessive pronouns (his, her, its, their) were absent. Since something was needed in their place, the genitive of regular personal pronouns was used instead (literally: his -> of him = jego; her -> of her = jej; their -> of them = ich). But we can still interpret them as possessive pronouns. In Polish, all pronouns should inflect for case, but since they are already inflected for genitive, it can't be done again. That's why jego, jej and ich always stay the same.


What does it mean to decline?



"In linguistics, declension is the inflection of nouns, pronouns, adjectives, and articles to indicate number (at least singular and plural), case (nominative or subjective, genitive or possessive, etc.), and gender. A declension is also a group of nouns that follow a particular pattern of inflection."

'to decline' is just a verb that means inflecting given word for these categories(number, gender, case).


"dobre" is a neuter adjective. "dobrze" is an adverb.


I made a mistake and wrote 'smaczne', but this was accepted dispite not being a translation of 'good'. I disagree with the 'it means the same' attitude. It was wrong!


I agree. I see a lot of people commenting if alternative words can be used to mean the same thing. Whilst I agree there can be multiple words to convey the same meaning I don't think anything other than the literal translation should be accepted.

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