"Det finnes mange parker i byen."
Translation:There are many parks in the city.
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There are two very similar verbs: "å finne" = "to find" and "å finnes" = "to be, exist, occur, be found".
The conjugation of "å finnes" is irregular:
- present tense finnes or fins
- simple past fantes or fans
- past participle funnes
In some situations they are, but they have different connotations. It doesn't seem to be exactly the same as in Swedish. For example, "Det är en park" is "It is a park," vs. "Det finns en park" is "There is a park." I'm not sure if it's exactly the same in Norwegian though. My gut instinct is that Norwegians use "er" in more situations than the Swedish use "är," but that could just be the course.
I meant to say that i know "det er" means "it is" but it can also mean "there is", i was wondering if i could use "det finnes" to mean "there is" always over "det er", I hope that makes my question more clear. Thanks for your input, and here's to your future year streak! :)
No, it's not considered incorrect. It's just really hard to say, especially in quick speech. The incorrect "there's" for plurals is almost universally used because it's much easier to say.
- There are many parks
- There're many parks (correct)
- There is many parks (incorrect)
- There's many parks (accepted)
Often used in place of there are, almost universally in spoken English, even when there is would sound incorrect.