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Why does the correction say that I should have used the "they" form of gustan, when I am trying to say "I do not like Mondays". Is it because "me gustan" is literally translated as "Mondays do not please me", so "Mondays" is the subject (and is therefore "they")?....After all that, I think I explained it to myself!! LOL
los lunes means Mondays in general, and we do not translate the the portion of it into English
el lunes would refer to a specific Monday, and again the the isn't translated.
wouldn't "I do not like mondays" be translated as "No gusto los lunes" not "no me gustan los lunes"
The verb "gustar" means to like. It only has two forms, "gusta" and "gustan". "Gustan" is only used with plural nouns. "Gusta" is used with singular nouns and actions, such as "Me gusta cantar." The way you translated it, you conjugated it like an -ar verb, though gustar has two forms, not six. I hope I helped! If you have any questions, just ask me and I'll try to help. :)
In Spanish the noun gets an definite article (los/las, AKA "the") when the noun refers to an entire class of thing rather than to individual members of the class. In English the noun does not get the definite article when referring to the class.
We wouldn't use 'the' in english within this context. This statement is of a general nature therefore an article isn't needed. But in spanish it is required.