I wrote "I don't have it at hand". Could an english native confirm if it sounds correct?
"I don't have it on hand" is better, I think. When something is "at hand" it means something is happening presently - and doesn't generally have anything to do with hands ie. "The decision is at hand" would mean the decision is being decided or is about to be decided.
"at hand," "on hand," and "to hand" are all pretty much equivalent, but are used by different English speakers depending where they live. "to hand" is generally British, while Americans tend to prefer "at hand" or "on hand." Some speakers say they make a distinction between them but those distinctions are mostly personal preference.
I am from Canada and wouldn't use "to hand" unless it were something like "hand to hand combat" but not in many other instances. I don't like the sound when someone says "I don't have it at hand". It should be "on hand", which also has restrictions. "We need to deal with the problem on hand" does not sound right. "We need to deal with the problem at hand" sounds perfect! I see the same parallels in the German language. Words are specific and paying attention to those details is what makes you fluent.
I'd say "I don't have it on hand" means you don't have it readily available, but can get it, like you can order it. While "I don't have it at hand" means it isn't right with you, but you can get it quickly, like from the other room.
I'd say "to hand" but that's probably better for something you can have in your hand as well as it it being very near.
So interesting--I've never heard "to hand." Where are you from? "On hand" to me implies physically present. "At hand" to me implies physically as well as temporally present.
I'd have to agree. I live in the US and I have never heard someone say to hand. Both on hand and at hand feel pretty interchangeable to me
I live in the US and use to hand and at hand pretty interchangeably, but then I read a lot of British authors when I was growing up.
it sounds weird to me, i would never say it
A bit confused with this one. Is "dabei" an evidence to translate it like that- "with me"? Since there is no mich, mir, ich.
I put "I don't have it with" I knew this was an incomplete sentence but adding 'with me' seemed presumptuous. In my thinking however, English speakers do say things like "Do you want to come with?" and we leave off the 'me', it is acceptable and clearly understood. Yet here, it's marked wrong.
I've always thought that it was mid-western because of the German heritage in the mid-West. I certainly never heard it in the UK as a boy, and was surprised when I came to the US and did hear it, at least from mid-Westerners!
Really perceptive comment. One of my favorite things about learning new languages is that I start to see how the ancestral languages of people in the different areas of the US turn into particular ways of speaking english - french on the southeast coast and northern new england, Italian in central new england, german all over the mid west and bible belt, and Spanish everywhere. There will probably be a time in the future, if there isn't already, when arabic and chinese have affected entire areas of the US with a certain kind of uniquely American accent.
I was born in Ohio in a very German area but never heard the "come with" ( without the "me") until moving to eastern Nebraska. Also found it to be common in southeast Minnesota where I also lived, despite heavy Norwegian influences there.
Weird, I live in the southeast and "with me" sounds perfectly common and not presumptuous. Regional differences, I suppose.
I am from the north of England where we are famous for clipping words and I have never heard, nor said, "Do you want to come with" without the addition of "me"or "us".
If you are a non-native English speaker please note: anyone who says 'Do you want to come with' without the 'me' at the end would be considered poorly educated. That sentence is ambiguous and confusing. It's wrong and is very poor English. Don't do it.
That is a ridiculous statement. It is colloquial but certainly not indicative of low class or education. I agree that one should not extrapolate to dropping the me in other cases outside of that expression, but I think you are just unfamiliar with what is a fairly common phrase.
Now you put it like that, then yes, friends might be arranging to go somewhere and say 'do you want to come with?' to someone with them. I've heard it a lot around London and northern England. It isn't standard English and would lose marks in an exam, though.
It's definitely best for a foreigner to stick to the book until they are comfortable with the language, but uneducated? It's just a way people in some areas talk. Are you going to say that everyone in Quebec is uneducated because they speak differently from the people in Paris? I think you're the uneducated one, Ma'am.
I'm a native English speaker and somewhat overeducated, thank you very much, and I always say "I don't have it with." It is common usage. It should be marked correct.
It's definitely common usage in spoken English in the American midwest and fairly common in the western US. Not so much in the northeast, though.
Aside from regional differences, spoken language often operates under different "acceptable rules" than does written language, usually with more latitude. Although sometimes this difference can be attributed to a lower level of education, this is certainly not always true. Sometimes changes occur simply because certain phrases flow off the tongue more easily; sometimes there are complicated cultural & historical issues that give rise to different forms of the same language; sometimes certain ways of speaking are acceptable (even "correct") in certain situations while another way of speaking is required in other situations. Sociolinguistically, this is called "code-switching"--the ability to switch from one form of a language to another, given appropriate contexts.
Bull. In some areas of America, it's acceptable colloquial English to omit the 'me' at the end of the sentence, especially in those areas with a strong German influence like Central PA or the Great Plains. It is not a reflection of the education of the speaker. Further more, it's not ambiguous because you're asking if the person will COME with you. The 'me' in that sentence is implied.
I agree that saying, "come with me" sounds better for normal speech. Saying, "come with" sounds very casual. If you're learning English, I recommend you say, "come with me." You can't go wrong. But, if someone asks you if you want to "come with" you'll know that the person is asking if you want to "come with them."
One meaning of dabei is 'present'. So literally, the sentence translates 'I do not have it present(ly)', meaning 'I do not have it (with me/at the moment)'
Why is 'nicht' placed where it is in the sentence? Could it could elsewhere? I have a very hard time sorting out where it goes a lot of the time.
It's easier to understand the position of "nicht" if you read the King James Version of the Bible. Old English reminds us where the English language originated, and that English and German are in the same ancestry of languages.
For example, in modern English we say, "I don't know it." In old English, "I know it not." In German, "Ich weiß es nicht" OR "Ich kenne es nicht" (depending on the context).
"Ich habe es nicht dabei." = "I have it not at present."
Jabba's through with you. He has no time for smugglers who drop their shipments at the first sign of an Imperial cruiser.
Could anyone explain the difference between dabei and damit in this context, please?
As an American, I would say, I don't have it on me. That's most common where I'm from. But only if it's something small that you can fit on your pocket, like a pen or a phone. Bigger things you'd say 'with me'. 'On hand' is like 'on me', but its more used in a circumstance where you need something, and your friend may ask..do you have the screwdriver on hand? or 'at hand' or 'handy'.. like, ready for use.
Dabei is the adverb here. Adverbs always work a little differently in each language, but essentially, "dabei" means "with me," or "at this time." Therefore it is an adverb. You can find more details here: https://german.stackexchange.com/questions/9073/usage-of-dabei-and-wobei
The hover hint also shows but as a meaning. Where should dabei be placed in a sentence for the above meaning to hold?
I put 'I don't have it at the same time'. Duolingo said it is correct. I was thinking along the lines of, say, getting a drink ready to eat after eating, for example. Is this an alternative meaning of this sentence?
Is "I haven't it at the same time" correct too? Duolingo didn't accept it for me.
Shouldn't "Ich habe es nicht dabei" translate as "I do not have it with it"?
I saw someone posting similar below... but would "ich habe es nicht mit" also be acceptable?
Could the word order for 'nicht' and 'dabei' be swapped in this situation without changing the meaning?
It said "I don't have it with me" is wrong.... Should be "I do not have it with me"... -.-
You can't just split up dabei into da + bei.
Into bei das would make a bit more sense, but would still only be half of the story, because...
Prepositions don't map 1:1 between languages, so you can't say that German bei means exactly the same thing as English "by" in all cases.
And dabei in this sentence (as part of the expression etwas dabeihaben) carries an idiomatic sense.
A bit like "looking up a word in a dictionary" does not mean that "look" "up" (i.e. move your eyes to focus on a high position).
And finally, "I dont have it by there" doesn't make sense to me in English. What does it mean to have something by a place?
Could one say ""Ich habe es nicht damit" or ""Ich habe es nicht mit mir"? I am still strugglijg with the difference between "damit" and "dabei" generally..
Thank you again! Got it - this is the idiomatic aspect that any language has (like the huge discussion of "with" versus "with me" and "at hand" versus "on hand" above). I guess I will just have to hang around with some very patient German speakers!
In UK English it is almost always to hand = available = with me = handy.
I hate these ever changing meanings.
In this case it appears to mean "with me".
However, "dabei wobei dabei" would translate to "while being there"
and if I switch it around to "wobei dabei wobei" it translates to "where thereby".
Oops sorry.. I missed your last reply. Anyways thanks for clarification