Why is owoce not translated as "a fruit" rather than fruit? How can we tell if we should put the article in there?
Good question, but I'm afraid that's just one of the strange things about English.
Why it's wrong : I have a sandwich and A fruit.? Why it's suppose to be: I have A sandwich and THE fruit.
different words ave different case endings.
Kanapka is feminine and singular - it has -ę as accusative ending. Owoc is singular masculine , in plural owoce is not masculine personal. It has accusative=nominative owoce.
Can someone please explain why this is an accusative case? Nothing is "being done" to the nouns. I agree they are not the subject of the sentence, so I understand this is not a nominative sentence, but I do not see why it should be accusative.
Because „kanapka” and „owoce” are direct objects here and direct objects in a sentence are marked by accusative case(in affirmative statements). Although English no longer marks nouns, it still marks pronouns in such a situation:
- 'I have him' (and not 'I have he')
I can't be getting used to translating owoce as fruit. Thanks to Russian and Ukrainian languages.
Grammatically, 'owoc' is masculine, and 'owoce' not masculine-personal plural.
in one of the previous tasks they said that owoc means something like a pice of fruit and for singular fruit we should use owoce, and now they say that owoce is plural and no way singular! how to understand that??
hmm… Not sure what you are referring to, but just to make things clear, „Owoc” is Nominative singular, 'one fruit'/'a piece of fruit'; „Owoce” is nominative plural, 'multiple fruit' and/or 'multiple fruits'.
„Kawałki owocu” is pieces of one fruit(for example: you take one apple and cut it to four pieces = „cztery kawałki owocu”), „kawałki owoców” is pieces of multiple fruit and/or fruits(for example: you take two apples and cut each into four pieces or you take one apple and one pear and cut them both into four pieces = „osiem kawałków owoców”).
Hope that helps.
A sandwich - sure, but about 'some', we rather keep close to what exactly was written, and "some fruit" would equal "trochę owoców".
I know that 'some' has a variety of functions in English - or, to put it another way, a variety of translations into Polish - but as a native speaker of English I can tell you that
"I have a sandwich and fruit" "I have a sandwich and some fruit"
... mean exactly the same thing. There's not reason to not allow what TonyKreuch suggests.
Sometime after I wrote that answer, we started to be a bit more lenient with "some". If it generally works in English in a given sentence, it can be accepted. And actually now I see that it already works.
Excellent. It's a tough one, because you could probably find example of English sentences where adding a 'some' changes the meaning somewhat, but then there are lots of cases where it makes zero difference. At the same time this is only a side issue to teaching Polish... so a hard balance to keep.
Could we translate this by "I am having a ..." instead of "I have a" This is not accepted while I thought 'ma' was imperfective.
Well, mostly because "I am having" = "I am eating" and when you have something, you just have (possess) it.
Yeah, "mieć" is technically imperfective, but there's no perfective, it's hard for me to even imagine how it could look.
Yes. For: 'not masculine-personal' plural (which is here), neuter singular and masculine inanimate singular, the Accusative form looks identical to Nominative.
So "Mam owoce" = I have fruit(s), "Mam owoc" = I have a fruit.
I am having a sandwich and fruit. why can I not use the active or present participle.
Because that would change the meaning to be equivalent with "I am eating", and that's absolutely not what the Polish sentence means.
"kanapkę". "mieć" (to have) takes Accusative, which is "kanapkę". "kanapka" is Nominative.
What happens if I say ''and a fruit'' or ''and fruit'' ''and a fruit'' had to be correct ( so that ''and a fruit' was my answer)
Polish, unlike English, has clear singular and plural for fruit.
one fruit: owoc, many fruit: owoce. these forms are both for Nominative and Accusative, and it is the Accusative here.
"owocę" would probably be the Accusative singular if the basic form was "owoca". but it's not a word.
So would the sentence "Mam kanapkę i owoc" be correct if I wanted to say that I have a sandwich and (one singular piece of) fruit? Or is that something that Polish people just wouldn't say?