1. Forum
  2. >
  3. Topic: Polish
  4. >
  5. "Mam kanapkę i owoce."

"Mam kanapkę i owoce."

Translation:I have a sandwich and fruit.

December 13, 2015



Why is owoce not translated as "a fruit" rather than fruit? How can we tell if we should put the article in there?

  • a fruit is owoc (singular)
  • fruit is owoce (plural)


I must have missed that, thanks!


You're not the only one ;-)


Oh, all this time I thought "owoce" was a collective noun!


Why it's wrong : I have a sandwich and A fruit.? Why it's suppose to be: I have A sandwich and THE fruit.


Owoce is the plural of owoc.


Just like Polish noun "drzwi" indicates singular "one door" or plural "doors", English nouns, like "fruit", or "fish" indicate "owoc", "ryba", lub "owoce", "ryby".


Can someone please explain why this is an accusative case? Nothing is "being done" to the nouns. I agree they are not the subject of the sentence, so I understand this is not a nominative sentence, but I do not see why it should be accusative.


Because „kanapka” and „owoce” are direct objects here and direct objects in a sentence are marked by accusative case(in affirmative statements). Although English no longer marks nouns, it still marks pronouns in such a situation:

  • 'I have him' (and not 'I have he')


Oh, I see! Thank you! :)


It is the verb, which dictates the case of the following noun. Many (not all... )
very common verbs, like "mieć", "widzieć", "jeść", "lubić", "kochać", go with the accusative. What is "done" to the noun here is that you "have it". It is a good idea to practice any new verb together with the noun in its respective case:

to have (who(m)? what? - Accusative) - mieć (kogo? co? - Biernik)

I have (what?) a sandwich/sandwiches - Mam (kogo? co?) kanapkę/kanapki
I can see (what?) a house/houses - Widzę (kogo? co?) dom/domy
I eat (what?) an apple/apples - Jem (kogo? co?) jabłko/jabłka


Why is it kanapkę but not owocę?


different words ave different case endings.

Kanapka is feminine and singular - it has -ę as accusative ending. Owoc is singular masculine , in plural owoce is not masculine personal. It has accusative=nominative owoce.


is "owoce" also supposed to be in the accusative form like kanapkę?


Yes. For: 'not masculine-personal' plural (which is here), neuter singular and masculine inanimate singular, the Accusative form looks identical to Nominative.

So "Mam owoce" = I have fruit(s), "Mam owoc" = I have a fruit.


Can it be translated as " I have A sandwich and SOME fruit"?


A sandwich - sure, but about 'some', we rather keep close to what exactly was written, and "some fruit" would equal "trochę owoców".


I know that 'some' has a variety of functions in English - or, to put it another way, a variety of translations into Polish - but as a native speaker of English I can tell you that

"I have a sandwich and fruit" "I have a sandwich and some fruit"

... mean exactly the same thing. There's not reason to not allow what TonyKreuch suggests.


Sometime after I wrote that answer, we started to be a bit more lenient with "some". If it generally works in English in a given sentence, it can be accepted. And actually now I see that it already works.


Excellent. It's a tough one, because you could probably find example of English sentences where adding a 'some' changes the meaning somewhat, but then there are lots of cases where it makes zero difference. At the same time this is only a side issue to teaching Polish... so a hard balance to keep.


с каких пор овощи стали фруктами? О_о


Isn't it cute?
The first word means "warzywa" (vegetables) in Polish (potatoes, beets).

The second one means "owoce" (fruit) in Polish (apples, grapes, oranges).

If it helps to straighten out your eyes, there are "pomidory" (tomatoes),
known as vegetables, but they are... fruit, so you can call them "owoce".

Learn Polish in just 5 minutes a day. For free.