"Dziewczynki mają chleb."

Translation:The girls have bread.

December 13, 2015

43 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/Lyndsay29

Why does "Dziewczynki" have an "i" at the end of it instead of a "y" like other feminine plural nominative nouns in Polish?

December 16, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/Duan

Because Polish spelling rules prevent you from ever having a "y" after a "g" or "k", it has to be an "i" instead.

December 17, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/RedViperMartell

Are -i and -y pronounced the same way at the end of a word?

July 21, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/Jellei

No, these are different sounds, and it may be that this would be the only thing to distuingish between forms of the word:

zielony (green, masculine singular)

zieloni (green, masculine personal plural)

July 21, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/DawidRK

Because its got a strong i soimd

January 22, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/RedViperMartell

Is ch pronounced like the throat-clearing sound that comes up a lot in Hebrew?

December 13, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/Hippopigamus

Yes it is pronounced like the Hebrew one but softer. It's more like the German "ch" in Bach

December 14, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/AspiroFremor

"Ch" is pronounced exactly like "h". And "h" or "ch" are never silent.

December 13, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/RedViperMartell

So like "h" in English?

December 14, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/timstellmach

No. It's like the Scots "loch" (don't overdo it) or the Yiddish "chutzpah."

It's true that "ch" and "h" are the same sound in Polish, but that sound is not like any of the various English "h" sounds.

January 10, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/AspiroFremor

I would say so, but like I said, contrary to Polish, English "h" is sometimes silent.

December 14, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/Orangus

polish "ch" is like english "h" in words like "human"(not for all) and "huge", but not like in "hurry" or "hungry".

July 19, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/Jellei

If anything, it's rather the other way round, given what follows "h" in the first two words you mentioned.

But usually it is rather said that it is unlike any English "h".

July 19, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/Pietro460054

Real scientifical explanetion: ch is /x/, a velar fricative. You put the tongue where you would put it for k or g, but not touching, so there is a turbulent airstream that goes over the toungue. https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Voiceless_velar_fricative

January 23, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/spicy_wolf

you can hear how different natives pronounce "chleb" and constructions related to this word here: http://uk.forvo.com/search/chleb/pl/

March 20, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/DavidWinlo

Are there no conjugation tables for Polish?

May 10, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/timstellmach

There are four main conjugations (depending on how you slice it). This page looks like a decent overview: http://www.lsa.umich.edu/slavic/dept/webbasedlanguage/polish/grammar/VerbConjugation/index.htm

May 11, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/FiskeFinne

How do you say "are having" in Polish? According to Duolingo mają can only mean "have".

December 16, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/ScottHutch

When I was in high school, and took German, the teacher I had explained that in a lot of other languages, verbs can be translated three different ways into English. In the case of "the girls have bread", it would be 1. The girls have bread; 2. The girls are having bread; or 3. The girls do have bread. And we just have to figure out from the context which is is.

I'm assuming Polish is similar, but I might be wrong.

December 16, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/FiskeFinne

Yes, Polish is similar, but "The girls are having bread" was marked incorrect for me in this sentence. Maybe it's just because the course is in beta and still has a few mistakes. Or maybe "to have" is an exception to the rule?

December 24, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/timstellmach

Short answer: "to have" is an exception to the rule.

The English "to have" can either mean (among other things) "to possess" or "to partake" (e.g. "we're having lunch," or "he had a good time.")

Although English verbs normally take the present continuous ("to be ...-ing") tense for current actions, the verb "to have" is an a bit of an exception. It uses only the simple present tense to indicate posession (e.g. "the girls have bread"), while the present continuous indicates one of the other meanings.

So, "the girls are having bread" means that they are eating the bread. Because the Polish "mieć" does not have this meaning, "the girls are having bread" is indeed incorrect for "dziewczynki mają chleb."

For an English verb that didn't have this particular quirk, you could indeed translate the Polish present tense into either the simple present tense or the present continuous tense in English.

January 10, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/Biserka54

Is ą always nasalized?

March 28, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/timstellmach

Yes (unlike ę, which at the end of a word sounds like e).

April 24, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/Biserka54

Thank you timstellmach

April 24, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/RedViperMartell

Unless you're Lech Wałęsa :P

July 21, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/ruslanvide

Why have not has?

July 24, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/Jellei

Because English uses 'has' only for 3rd person singular, not plural.

July 24, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/ruslanvide

Thanks

July 27, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/TimTamblyn

why not some bread?

August 14, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/Jellei

That would be "trochę chleba" (quantifiers like "trochę" = "some" need Genitive).

August 14, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/TimTamblyn

Yes but trochę chleba is a reverse translation. She has some bread is much more natural than she has bread, which to be honest feels as though it is missing an article and as bread is uncountable 'some' fits the bill. I would not translate 'I have some milk' into Polish using troche. It would simply be 'Mam mleko' surely.

August 14, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/Jellei

OK, I guess your explanation makes sense. Added then.

August 15, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/Vinyamoiel

This is wrong. "The girls have a bread" should be acceped.

February 5, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Jellei

You cannot say "a bread" in English. Bread is uncountable. If you mean "jeden chleb" (which also seems at least... colloquial in Polish), you should say "a loaf of bread" (bochenek chleba).

February 6, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Vinyamoiel

I am know now. This is countable and uncountable verbs.

March 18, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/japhes

It should be "has" as it third person not "have"

October 27, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Jellei

Ehmm... It's "has" in 3rd person singular, not plural.

October 27, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/JoseEnciso2

Why "some"?

December 12, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Jellei

"some" is just possible, acceptable, not the main translation. English uses "some" a lot more often than Polish uses its equivalent, "trochę".

December 12, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Kayla162391

A lot of people are eating bread water milk and apples.

September 14, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/AlfredMars3

Why it makes my answer false if I do not use "the". As far as I know in polish there is no difference between the boy and a boy

January 16, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/AlfredMars3

Or am I wrong?

January 16, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/Jellei

You're right, but you're commenting in a discussion about a sentence with no "boy" at all.

January 16, 2019
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