Why does "Dziewczynki" have an "i" at the end of it instead of a "y" like other feminine plural nominative nouns in Polish?
Because Polish spelling rules prevent you from ever having a "y" after a "g" or "k", it has to be an "i" instead.
No, these are different sounds, and it may be that this would be the only thing to distuingish between forms of the word:
zielony (green, masculine singular)
zieloni (green, masculine personal plural)
Is ch pronounced like the throat-clearing sound that comes up a lot in Hebrew?
Yes it is pronounced like the Hebrew one but softer. It's more like the German "ch" in Bach
"Ch" is pronounced exactly like "h". And "h" or "ch" are never silent.
No. It's like the Scots "loch" (don't overdo it) or the Yiddish "chutzpah."
It's true that "ch" and "h" are the same sound in Polish, but that sound is not like any of the various English "h" sounds.
I would say so, but like I said, contrary to Polish, English "h" is sometimes silent.
polish "ch" is like english "h" in words like "human"(not for all) and "huge", but not like in "hurry" or "hungry".
If anything, it's rather the other way round, given what follows "h" in the first two words you mentioned.
But usually it is rather said that it is unlike any English "h".
Real scientifical explanetion: ch is /x/, a velar fricative. You put the tongue where you would put it for k or g, but not touching, so there is a turbulent airstream that goes over the toungue. https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Voiceless_velar_fricative
There are four main conjugations (depending on how you slice it). This page looks like a decent overview: http://www.lsa.umich.edu/slavic/dept/webbasedlanguage/polish/grammar/VerbConjugation/index.htm
How do you say "are having" in Polish? According to Duolingo mają can only mean "have".
When I was in high school, and took German, the teacher I had explained that in a lot of other languages, verbs can be translated three different ways into English. In the case of "the girls have bread", it would be 1. The girls have bread; 2. The girls are having bread; or 3. The girls do have bread. And we just have to figure out from the context which is is.
I'm assuming Polish is similar, but I might be wrong.
Yes, Polish is similar, but "The girls are having bread" was marked incorrect for me in this sentence. Maybe it's just because the course is in beta and still has a few mistakes. Or maybe "to have" is an exception to the rule?
Short answer: "to have" is an exception to the rule.
The English "to have" can either mean (among other things) "to possess" or "to partake" (e.g. "we're having lunch," or "he had a good time.")
Although English verbs normally take the present continuous ("to be ...-ing") tense for current actions, the verb "to have" is an a bit of an exception. It uses only the simple present tense to indicate posession (e.g. "the girls have bread"), while the present continuous indicates one of the other meanings.
So, "the girls are having bread" means that they are eating the bread. Because the Polish "mieć" does not have this meaning, "the girls are having bread" is indeed incorrect for "dziewczynki mają chleb."
For an English verb that didn't have this particular quirk, you could indeed translate the Polish present tense into either the simple present tense or the present continuous tense in English.
That would be "trochę chleba" (quantifiers like "trochę" = "some" need Genitive).
Yes but trochę chleba is a reverse translation. She has some bread is much more natural than she has bread, which to be honest feels as though it is missing an article and as bread is uncountable 'some' fits the bill. I would not translate 'I have some milk' into Polish using troche. It would simply be 'Mam mleko' surely.
You cannot say "a bread" in English. Bread is uncountable. If you mean "jeden chleb" (which also seems at least... colloquial in Polish), you should say "a loaf of bread" (bochenek chleba).
"some" is just possible, acceptable, not the main translation. English uses "some" a lot more often than Polish uses its equivalent, "trochę".
Why it makes my answer false if I do not use "the". As far as I know in polish there is no difference between the boy and a boy