"Mamy dobre ryby."

Translation:We have good fish.

December 14, 2015

This discussion is locked.


Can you explain why it is "dobre" instead of "dobry".


"dobry" is a masculine form of the adjective, "ryby" are 'not masculine-personal plural', for which the right form is "dobre".


I wrote We have good fishes and it did not accept it. Ryby is plural right? I think the translation is wrong.

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Ryby is plural, but so is fish.


so, it i fishes not fish?


In English, the plural of fish is fish


ooops thank you.


then why did I write, ten words ago, ryby -> fishes and it accepted it?


Actually 'fishes' works here as well, although it didn't in December, when those comments were written.

The reason is: if you talk about different species of fish, then the plural is in fact "fishes". If you talk only about salmons, the plural is still "fish".


Fishes is a conjugation of the verb "to fish" in English.


It is also used in science to mean multiple species of fish.


I wrote exactly that and got it right.


I typed exactly what's in the traslation and got it wrong :(


Exactly what did you type? Not all the hints are applicable to all sentences. Please pick the hint that is the best fit for a sentence.


i have "we have nice fishes" .. nice is not good ?


Well... I guess in this context, it does make sense, there isn't really any closer translation. Added now.


Sorry for a beginner's question: is the original sentence intending to mean "we have (possess) good (quality/variety) fish" or does it mean "we have (to eat) good fish"? Would someone tell me how to say both of those things in Polish, please? Thanks!


We have=possess. Polish "mieć" does not have the 'eating' meaning.

In case you're interested, the literal translation of 'possess' is "posiadać", so "Posiadamy dobre ryby". Rather a strange thing to say, though.

So "We have good fish" (Isn't it almost always "We are having good fish" in this meaning?) gets translated simply as if it was "We are eating good fish", so "Jemy dobre ryby".


Jellei - (Isn't it almost always "We are having good fish" in this meaning?) In answer to your query, I'm quite sure that the answer is 'no'! You could say something like 'We are having good fish TONIGHT' (because the fish was bad yesterday ) but we don't generally use the present participle (-ing) when expressing possession. I can say 'I am having a good time' but 'a good time' is not something you possess. I'm sorry I can't explain the complexities of the English language as clearly as you express the complexities of the Polish language to us, but I hope that helps.


But that's what I meant, that if I express possession, I say "We have good fish", but English can also say "We are having good fish" and it means that we are eating them. "we are having" doesn't make much sense to a Polish person.

Hmmm, I guess that the last paragraph of my message is rather confusing... well, I believe that in theory you could use Present Simple "to have" in the 'eating' meaning, it's just a lot less common, right? And in Polish, "mieć" doesn't have anything to do with eating.

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