"I have children."
Translation:Mam dzieci.
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There is a rule of phonetical softening in Polish ( I am not sure if it is proper grammatical term.) If there is an 'i' after c, dz, z, s, it is pronounced as ć, dź, ź, ś. Threfore dzieci is pronounced as if written (dźeći). The letters dzi and dź are pronounced the same. The other letters(ci, ć...) are pronounced also the same. Dzi and dź is similar sound as j in jeep, ci and ć sounds simmilar like ch in cheek. Important thing for pronountiation is create these "soft sounds" on your front teeth.
Why would "Ja mam dzieci" not be an acceptable answer, when "Ja jem" is grammatically acceptable? Does it have to do with the possession of the child versus the action of eating?
I don't know why, it should be acceptable. "Ja" is unnecessary, but it can be in this sentence. In Poland we usually don't use "Ja" in sentences like "Ja mam dzieci", "Ja zrobiłem zadanie domowe", "Ja wyprowadziłem psa" etc. "Ja" (or you, she, he etc.) is included in form of a verb. For "ja" it's -łem or -łam. But then it is in past time.
Sorry for mistakes, I try, but I can't speak English very well :/.
"Ja mam dzieci" is actually our source sentence here, although "Ja" is definitely unnecessary. It should have worked, and although Audrey's comment is very old, I think it must have worked back then as well.
Don't worry, your comment is quite good, one bigger mistake: "past tense" ("tense" = "czas" w gramatyce).
Could someone please explain the pronunciation of "dzieci"? Isn't "c" stands for "ts"?