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- Topic: Polish >
- "Słuchasz mnie?"
27 Comments
I wrote "Słyszysz mnie?" as a response here but deleted it later on after you replied. Would it also be ok?
I translated it as "do you hear me" and it said it was incorrect....why?
Correct to presume that "to" is included, free of charge, with the verb and we don't need another word for it?
Does sluchasz (sorry, can`t find a way to type correct squiggle for the "l" in this program) take the accusative or genitive? In other words, is mnie here accusative or genitive?
Okay, if there's no "czy" in the question, an indicative word order is also fine. Although it's a bit strange, it sounds like you are surprised that someone is actually listening to you ;) Added, anyway.
No. "słuchać" is "to listen", "słyszeć" is "to hear".
Even if you use "Do you hear me?" jokingly instead of "Are you listening?", then you still should translate it similarly.
The sense of the sentence is different. In English you would use "Are you hear me" during a phone call to check if the other side is receiving anything. "Are you listening to me", your parents would scream if you did something stupid, and your parents have already told you not to do it.
Remember that you have to add the necessary words. You translated it too directly, it should be "are you listening to me"(like in "I wanna rock", from the Twisted Sisters ;) ). For instance, if you see the phrase "kochamy to", translating it directly will get you "love this", but since "kochamy" is the plural form of "kocham", the actual translation would be "we love this"
442
I would say you have to add the word to, are you listening to me. Are you listening me is poor grammar. Do you hear me?
- 442
Translations to other languages often leadfs much to be desired, what is correct in one is almost a backward pronunciation in the other. I learned that while in the military in Japan and Korea, we often got laughed at, politely for a backward translation.
