"Mam rybę."

Translation:I have the fish.

December 16, 2015

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What is the difference between "rybę" and "ryba"?

  • 2841

It's different case: ryba is nominative ('To jest ryba'), rybę is accusative ('Mam/widzę rybę')


yes, Same as ParGrain asked. CAn you please explain a little more about how to know which word of fish in Polish to choose? Can you give examples of how fish would be nominative vs accusative in an English sentence? Thanks.


In order to give a more grammatical explanation for the examples of mati2065: Nominative is used for the subject of the sentence, i.e. when the fish does something or is described. On the other hand, when the fish is the direct object of the sentence, thus when someone does something to the fish directly, you use accusative.


It was mentioned some lessons before - you can use nominative with verbs like "być" (to be) or "zostać" (to become). We are using accusative in Polish with verbs like "mieć" (to have), "lubić" (to like), "jeść" (to eat). The noun in accusative somehow describes/explain/reveal what you have/like/eat etc. Sorry for my English, I hope it helps you ;)


What is the difference in nominative and accusative in english?


Nominative is used for the subject of a sentence; accusative is used for the direct object.


Nominative is also used for the predicate nominative which refers back to the subject after the verb "to be" or "to become". I am a student. I = student (same person)


We can still see the old English case system in the pronouns. I (nom) - me (acc). He (nom) - him (acc). She - her. We - us.

I love him. She loves me. He has her. We have her.

[deactivated user]

    I know it is random, and maybe you already know it, but your surname would be spelt "Światkowski" in Poland :)


    Most likely it would be spelled: Świątkowski :)


    I starting to get this


    The word "I've" in English normally isn't used in a possessive scentence unless it's with "I've got"


    Yes, I think that the Duolingo program recognizes "I've" as also meaning "I have", but they have not programmed it to understand that this form is only used when "have" is an auxiliary or helping verb. This exists for all the languages, translating to or from English. The program would have to see if another verb were coming after it before allowing the contraction, but programming can be rather long and I don't see this being resolved too soon.


    So Polish treats the object being possessed for "has" as a direct object? Weird. I took Latin back in the day and it just conjugated those as nominative.


    I also took Latin. Perhaps you need to brush up on your Latin. https://en.wikibooks.org/wiki/Latin/Lesson_2#Case

    http://www.archives.nd.edu/cgi-bin/lookdown.pl?possess Bonum animum habere (to be of good courage) actually translates to "To have good courage" If you look carefully, courage is in Accusative case.

    The nouns that come after the verb "to be" or "to become" are the ones that stay in the Nominative case because they refer back to the subject. In "I am a student.", I = student (same person).

    In "I have a cat.", cat is the direct object which would be in Accusative case.

    Now if you were to say "The student's cat is a small animal." "Student" would be in Genitive case, "cat" would be in Nominative case and "animal" would be in Nominative case.


    Why is "I am having fish" not marked as correct?


    "I am having fish," in English means that I am eating or will eat fish. In Polish, Mam rybę means literally that I have a fish in my possession. Literally, "I have a fish."


    nie rozumiecie polskiego a przecież to mój język ojczysty :( czemu... to prościzna np : dziadek, dżokej, herbata itd. itp.


    shouldnt i have fish be accepted?


    No, because that would mean that these are plural fish. There was just one fish in Polish.


    So, if you're having fish for supper, say, a few filets, would it be singular or plural? You might not know if it's from one fish or two because you bought it at the store, let's say.


    I'd treat it as a mass noun and just say "Jem rybę". Like, treating it more as 'fish meat' than 'fish as an animal'.


    I heard mamy rybe, only when slowed down does it sound like mam rybe. Is mamy rybe correct form for we have a fish?


    The slow voice may sometimes be distorted. "Mamy" means "we have", whereas "mam" is "I have".


    "a fish" is being rejected :((


    "a fish" is accepted, it should have worked.


    well, then give it back

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