"Nie słyszę cię."

Translation:I cannot hear you.

December 16, 2015

This discussion is locked.


Shouldn't correct answer be "I don't hear you" instead of "can't"?


They usually mean the same, and in fact "I can't hear you" seems to be used a lot more often.


"I can't hear you" is more commonly used ok but to the point where "I don't hear you" is not accepted, not very fair.


Would "Ja nie cię słyszę" also be gramatically correct?

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No, because of word order - negation word 'nie' must precede the verb that it negates. You can say 'Ja nie ciebie słyszę' but it would mean 'It is not you that i hear (but someone else)'

So either 'Nie słyszę cię/ciebie' or 'Ja cię/ciebie nie słyszę'


What is the difference between "cię" and "ciebie"?

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None. Both mean 'you' in accusative, but one is mute form ('cię') and one is stressed ('ciebie').

Stressed is used if the logical accent in the sentence is more on the receiver of the action than on the action itself. ('Kocham cię/Kocham ciebie' - 'I love you/I love you')

Also if you want to begin the sentence with the pronoun, it must be the stressed form.


Sounds strange in English, would more commonly be "I cannot hear you"


is the cię now in accousative or genitive? to my understanding, since its a negation it should be genitive right?


'Cię nie słyszę' would also be correct?


No. If anything, than "Ciebie nie słyszę". "ciebie" is the emphasized version of "cię", and only it can be used at the beginning of the sentence.

But that would be "You I do not hear (but I do hear him)", it emphasizes "you" in a rather unusual manner.


Just got this sentence as a listening exercise and typed „nie słyszycie“. Is there a way to really hear the difference between the two or do you have to rely on the context?


Well, ę (more like 'e' at the end of a word) is still a different sound from y. I agree that it is close, especially with an imperfect audio, but it's definitely different.

Also, I don't think we have many sentences like "We hear", so one would expect an object.


Can is an extra verb. I tried the Yoda version "I hear you not" but accepted it wasn't. Sad this makes me.


Is 'cię' equivalent in meaning to 'ty' or 'wy'?


Cię is to ty what "me" is to "I" in English, I think. If it's the subject, then it's ty/wy, but if it's the object, then it is cię.


it also sounds like "Nie słyszycie."


Why is "I don't hear you" not accepted? Can't it be both?


It is accepted, it should have worked...


Jellei, could this also be translated, "I'm not listening to you"?


No, it could not. I have to say that I don't understand why so many people want to mix hearing and listening... :)


We have not yet learned the Polish verb for: can, or to be able; we have not learned the Polish infinitive for hear. That being the case, how would the Polish sentence read, if at all, if posed this way in English?: I am unable to hear you. Grazie mille.


Nie słyszę cię is exactly how we say "I cannot hear you/ I'm unable to hear you"


Yes, exactly. Although I guess you could treat the "unable" part very literally and say "Nie jestem w stanie cię usłyszeć" ;) Not a very probable sentence though.


I am very confused. As far as I understand from previous comments, cię is accusative, and this sentence is negative, therefore, shouldn't we use the genitive form of the pronoun?


does it also mean I 'do not' hear you?


Yes, it does.

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