There's a little ambiguity for me here. Does the Polish here mean that the grandma is giving away the fruit she owns (to anyone,) or that the grandma is just giving fruit to someone?
In short, does the "jej" have have a double meaning as both genitive and dative?
I think it means giving it to somebody. I'm not a native speaker, so I can't say for sure, but I don't think the verb "dac" alone would equate to "to give away". The possessive pronoun "swoj" in its appropriate form would probably be used to denote that it is fruit belonging to the grandmother to avoid ambiguity.
Indeed, there is an ambiguity here:
(1) Grandma gives away the fruit that belong to the other feminine (grammatically) being (jej - possessive pronoun)
(2) Grandma gives the fruit to some feminine being. (jej - dative case) The owner of the apple is unspecified.
Beware that in both sentences jej is never related to grandma.
Not quite :)
Here it's an uncountable noun so there is no plural.
Fruit is both a countable and an uncountable noun.
One piece of fruit
Two pieces of fruit
Countable (referring as you said to varieties of fruit)
This applies to other foodstuffs such as meets and cheeses.
The countable form is also used botanically and in metaphores.
Earlier in this round of questions a ' my sister...' type sentence was translated as 'siostra ..' with the explanation that the 'moja ' is not needed ( ive probably got it wrong tho!). Therefore can sentences that begin ...' my grandma '...' my dad ' etc also be translated..'Babcia..' ' 'Tata ...' etc.?(without the moja or moj)
It's clear that you can omit the possessive pronoun when the family member 'belongs' to the subject of the sentence (Widzę babcię = I see my grandma, if it wasn't my own grandma, then I'd say whose grandma it is).
It's more complicated if the family member is the subject of the sentence. But we decided that even then it's possible (just not so obvious, you need context to make it clear). Anyway, added the possibility to omit "moja" here.