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"yer yemez" anlamam yerdim lazim. the idiom is not transparent at least to this Eng. speaker.
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I would also appreciate an explanation of how 'yer yemez' means 'as soon as'
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An explanation somewhere else filled in the blank: it's just an idiom. Positive aorist verb, followed by negative aorist verb. It's always in the 3rd person singular. = as soon as this action is done, and who it's referring to (me, you, Selcen, etc.) is determined by the context of the rest of the sentence, and probably by the main verb at the end. No further logic, it's just like that.
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I think that it does not make sense. It depends of "içeceğim" If you translate the first part as past, the second part in future does not make sense for me. May anybody correct me if I am wrong. Look at the other example hereunder, where past tense is used.
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This is so confusing. "Yer yemez" means "As soon as I eat"? Where is the subject implied?
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this is little different in turkish, you say the verb twice. first you add -er and second -mez
ye-r ye-mez
another example to clarify:
ofise gider gitmez, çalışmaya başladım. (as soon as i went to the office, i started to work)
here the verb is git-mek
we say the verb twice and add the suffixes: git-er(t--->d) git-mez : gider gitmez
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It was a rhetorical question: me wondering whether I will ever learn this.
bunu is accusative? is the accusative fır şu şunu?
Yep! And the accusative of "o" is "onu"
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So the part "as soon as" is always in the 3rd person singular, and the suffix on the final verb decides who is the one who is doing the part "as soon as" ?
